sweeeet we have hippies here !!!! this place rocks, hay I want to start a commune in wa keeney. I see the gutiar do you have a band and if yes were do you play?

hmm kanasa I wonder how that is really spelt anyways I think I might have might all three girls from kanasas with a computer but I am doing a role call anyways

Thank you spider for writing here about polgamy with me. am done writing about it my eyes are blurry lol. I will read and study all that you wrote for me. I know one thing we do agree on is the need for christ in the family. thank you and have a great night peace

you would really have to ask a monk.. my focus is on the gossiple and not budhism. as for how might they go together i think ever one needs to let there brain rest and should meditate and probally no other connection just a personal one. maybe someone needing help relieveing stress...

Sometimes, people are indeed honest enough to admit that the Bible really does not prohibit polygamy (polygyny). However, as a hedge against that admission, such ones may then resort to saying one of the following assertions:

"Yes, but God never condoned polygamy."
"Yes, God allowed it, but He was against polygamy."
"Polygamy was only man's idea, not God's".
"Yes, but God never approved of polygamy."

The passage involving 2 Samuel 12:8 rather clearly reveals otherwise.

"And I gave thee thy master's house, and thy master's wives into thy bosom, and gave thee the house of Israel and of Judah; and if that had been too little, I would moreover have given unto thee such and such things."
2 Samuel 12:8.

The context of the verse is that of God, speaking through a prophet (Nathan), calling out David for David's sin of taking another man's wife (Bathsheba, wife of Uriah the Hittite), which is adultery indeed, and for setting up the death of Uriah the Hittite to try to hide David's sin.

Also, at the point in time of this situation, David had already been married to at least seven known-named wives. (1_Samuel 18:27, 25:42-43, 2_Samuel 3:2-5.)

But, in this verse 12 (above), God was not condemning David for all his wives! In fact, this verse 12 shows God Himself actually saying that HE was the One Who had GIVEN David His wives.

If God was against David's polygamy, He certainly would not have said that He had GIVEN David his wives.

But the LORD did not stop there. That verse 12 shows that the Lord took it even one step further than that! The LORD God even went on further to say that if David had wanted more wives, the Lord Himself said that He would have given David even more!

It was only because David had sinned, in committing adultery by taking another man's wife, and then causing that man's death to try to hide David's sin, that the Lord was calling him out through the prophet Nathan. There was no sin in the polygamy at all.

This is later confirmed that this was the only matter by 1 Kings 15:5, which says the following:

"Because David did that which was right in the eyes of the LORD, and turned not aside from any thing that he commanded him all the days of his life, save only in the matter of Uriah the Hittite. "
1 Kings 15:5.

Two verses before that, in 1 Kings 15:3, the Bible says that David's heart was perfect with the LORD God.

Very clearly, therefore, what all this shows is that God is the One Who gives wives, even when more than one wife.

This is, of course, confirmed by 1_Corinthians 7:17.

"But as God hath distributed to every man,
as the Lord hath called every one,
so let him walk.
And so ordain I in all churches."
1 Corinthians 7:17.

Be it
NO wife,
ONE wife, or
MORE THAN ONE wife,
it is only has God calls and gives.

As such, it is clear that the Bible does, in fact, explicitly show

"Yes, God did condone polygamy."
"Yes, God allowed it, and He was not against polygamy."
"Polygamy is not a man's idea, but God's".
"Yes, God did approve of polygamy."

In 2 Samuel 12:8, He Himself said so!

2 Timothy 3:5-7 I read the entire third chapter.. I agree with that translastaionwomen laden with sins.. I would never personal have a relationship with women like that.. thats why I would never reccomnd a believer to mary a non-believer. but there are other prophieces to that talk about 7 women with one man ishiah 4:1 that are talking about good people. If you believe I put on a front and have unholy women then yess 2 tim. chapter three describes me if you think I am raising a family to love God and learn the gossiple of christ and to except him as savior then Isiah 4:1 would be a better description.

yess I am a budhist ,but I do believe in the gossiple of christ. budhist is religion that teaches one to recongnize that there is a soul and alot of them have tradtions and myths that are false.. but most monks recognize this and dont believe idiols and such aka there is only one true God..my friend jak from thialand is a monk that believes in the gossiple of christ he taught me how to meditate and so forth...he hasnt tought me nothing against the bible.

its not a different level its just that if a women had more then one husband it wouldnt be more fruitful? with more then one wife it would.. but to be fiar I guess its ok , not in this family lol

I am sorrie spider I dont believe that Jesus is god. I believe God jehova yhwh or what ever translation you use is are father in heaven. and I believe jesus is his son born of a virgin who gave his life for the world.. and I couldnt believe anything else.. i dont know what else to say..

no I dont want a fight, I just get caught up in my study of the bible lol i respect your view. I will look up that sight you posted. if its describing polgamy families am sure it will give a totaly different discription then my family, I have read a lot of anti-proganda and have found it just that propganda by people who have had bad experiences I am pretty sure we could find a lot of bad to make propganda about single man and wife marriage also. like whos raising there children the t.v. the daycare ?? I could go on lol about how the femminist movoment has done bad for couples that have to both work and no one in the home .. I will read thanks spider.

DID GOD TOLarate sin as you mentioned ??
Malachi 3:6a-b and Hebrews 13:8 --- God does not change, nor would He, therefore, "tolerate" sin, as some mistakenly assert. Indeed, many Christians often speak of the "curse of the Law" in that, under the Old Testament, there was no "tolerance" for sin at all. And yet, such ones will then equally assert the opposite ---and thereby illogical--- thought that "polygamy" was supposedly a "sin" about which God supposedly "tolerated" in the Old Testament. Moreover, to suggest that God somehow "tolerated" sin is to then mistakenly assert that Christ supposedly did not need to "go to the Cross" for the salvation of sinners! (God forbid!) Indeed, the very gospel is precisely because God does not "tolerate" sin, that He prepared a means of redemption through Christ. The merciful Lord God does not change

o ya in 1 tim. 3:2 ya it wouldnt for lets say someone who spoke modern english you got to rember that people if different launge spoke a whole lot different the years and launge would make it sound like non-since, for example easy to do it yourself try translating spanish into english word for word there sentence would look backwards for the most part.. so when people translate old texts they have to put ir in form that a person from that launge can understand... make since if not you have to find a person that tranlates for a living not me lol

Men wanted more than one wife and were going to have multiple wives regardless of what God said THIS IS WHAT YOU WROTE!!! those who dis obey gods law will be judge not by me but by are lord... he doesnt care about what regardless the world does???
man is going to smoke pot and drink regardless I havent heard God say that was ok this is foolish to think god changes because of what man thinks .
and its not horrible at all I have a loving family and looking to make it grow if its Gods will and calling it horrible is like calling these men horrible Abdon* Abijah Abraham Ahab Ahasuerus
Ashur Belshazzar Benhadad Caleb David
Eliphaz Elkanah Esau Ezra Gideon
Heman* Hosea* Ibzan* Issachar** Jacob
Jair* Jehoiachin Jehoram Jerahmeel Joash
Lamech Machir Manasseh Mered Moses
Nahor Rehoboam Saul Shaharaim Shimei*
Simeon Solomon Terah* Zedekiah Ziba*
thanks- you for your post but do you have anything else to convience me other wise ??? I do have a open mind and will diffently read all you give me.

o ya this info. is for the guy who called it a feel good and do it lifestyle I just wants ya to know I am backed by the man who created it all!!! aka we call him God.. with that siad I hope every one can find there lucky someone and enjoy a long and happy life

"ONE FLESH" --- "Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh." Genesis 2:24, referenced in Matthew 19:5,6, Mark 10:8, 1_Corinthians 6:16, Ephesians 5:31. A man is "one flesh" with EACH woman with whom he copulates, whether in marriage (wife) or in fornication (harlot). When a married man, who is therefore already "one flesh" with his wife, copulates with another woman, that does not then negate his being "one flesh" with the wife. This is evident by the fact that 1_Corinthians 6:16 reveals that a man can be "one flesh" even with an harlot. As even a married man, therefore, can become "one flesh" with an harlot, that proves that a married man can indeed be "one flesh" with more than one woman, without negating his being "one flesh" with his wife. As that is so even with a married man with an harlot, it is thus just as equally true regarding a man being "one flesh" with more than one wife. For further proof, the very next verse provides the context of the plural-to-one aspect, i.e., 1_Corinthians 6:17: "But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit." As EACH Christian is joined as "one spirit" with the Lord, that then demonstrates the context of the plural-to-one aspect. Namely, as EACH Christian is joined as "one spirit" with the Lord, so too may EACH woman be joined as "one flesh" with one man. Lastly, when the Lord Jesus, in Matthew 19:5,6 and Mark 10:8, was re-quoting that original "one flesh" verse of Genesis 2:24, He was only dealing with the issue of divorce, saying, "What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder." (Matthew 19:6c-d.) That was opposing divorce of God-joined marriages, of what God Himself had joined together as "one flesh". For context, it is exegetically important to note that the "one flesh" verse itself of Genesis 2:24, which the Lord Jesus was re-quoting, was written by Moses. And Moses married (was "one flesh" with) two wives: Zipporah (Exodus 2:16-21 and 18:1-6) and the Ethiopian woman (Numbers 12:1). The term, "one flesh", could not otherwise allegedly mean that a man could not be "one flesh" with more than one woman because three things did indeed happen. 1) Moses did marry two wives. 2) Moses did author such other verses as Exodus 21:10 and Deuteronomy 21:15. 3) Jesus Christ did not speak against Moses' being "one flesh" with two wives. Hence, the Scriptures reveal that Jesus and Moses knew what "one flesh" meant when Moses authored Genesis 2:24: a man may be "one flesh" with more than one woman.

If a man have two wives..." Deuteronomy 21:15
The passage of Deuteronomy 21:15-17 is a specific instruction in the Law Itself to any man with "two wives".
If polygamy was a sin, then why are there laws in the bible??

Titus 1:6 and 1_Timothy 3:2,12 "One wife" mia is the Greek word from which the word, one, was translated in those passages. Yet, it can also be translated as first, just as it is, for example, so translated in the phrases, "first day of the week" in Matthew 28:1, Mark 16:1-2, and Acts 20:7.
Furthermore, in 1_Timothy 5:9, a widow's "one man" is not mia but the Greek word "heis", meaning the numeral-one, and not meaning the adjective of "first".
The fact is, no one can INSIST that these three "one wife" verses can NOT be instead translated as "first wife", which makes more sense to translate those verses as "first wife" anyway since these men had more then one wife themselves..

1_Timothy 4:1-3: the "Spirit speaketh expressly" and prophesied of the time of "forbidding to marry". Today's churches, (some unwittingly) "speaking lies in hypocrisy", would forbid the marriages of Abraham, Jacob/Israel, Moses, Gideon, and David ---not to mention forbidding how God described Himself in Polygamist terms in Jeremiah 3 and Ezekiel 23, and how Christ the perfect Savior did likewise when He referred to Himself as the Polygamous Bridegroom in the Parable of the Ten Virgins in Matthew 25:1-13. Indeed, such churches would not even allow such holy ones in the Scriptures to bring their polygamous families into such present-day churches. And yet, clearly, the Spirit expressly foretold of this profoundly obvious (even though often unwitting) hypocrisy, in 1_Timothy 4:1-3

am a practicing budhist will that work ?

no wild flower I think there are people who use that button to harras or if they disagree or for any stupid reason I dont like cause i think it s misused a lot a lot