sex before the fall in the garden?

yes It says they became "one flesh".

sex before the fall in the garden?

The first time it is mentioned in scripture is Gen 4:1 "Adam lay with his wife Eve and she became pregnant and gave birth to Cain."

So, we know it occured after they left the garden. There is no other reference previous to this - and no where else is it refered back to knowing anything other than the serpent tempting Eve in the garden - so the concluson is subjective. It is generally difficult to establish an occurance of something that is NOT written about as fact - unless the denial of it conflicts with latter statements. For instance - Cain had to get his wife somewhere - the text does not list all of A&E's children, nor does it offer additional creations. But it does give an account of the heavens and the earth when they were created - and only talks of Adam and Eve.
So - here too, if it bothers to mention it as the first accout of what happened after they were banished, and it occured before that - would it have already been mentioned?

Another perspective would be - what is the argument "against" their having been "sexually active"?

If you believe that they are fictitious characters in a book that is also fictitious, then what would it matter? Their lives would not be real outside of the scripture. If you do believe that Adam and Eve actually walked the earth, then I would see no reason for them not to have sexual relations outside of what is actually detailed in the bible. They were created as young, healthy adults and humans have a natural drive to procreate and sex is fun and it feels nice. Very specific hormones are released during the courtship phase that have other effects on the body as well. Human sexuality is very complicated and its not solely bound up in reproduction.

Otherwise, why would Yahweh have designed Eve with a clitoris? The clitoris has NO other function beyond that of the express purpose of sexual arousal.

sorry MM, that was inserted by the writer, after the fact,, it has nothing to do with the rest of the story, it was just plopped in thier by moses or whomever as to an explanation for why man and woman were concidered one flesh when they were married, A&E were never married, but they were made for one another, ahh if that was only true today.

I can't help but be curious, how do you know this?

i was going by 2 things spider, 1 - eljays response to my question stating "was this something the writer had done for the readers benifit? - to which you can read eljays reply, 2 - its very to see that it has no connection between toe afore mentioned verse orh the verse(s) after the statement.

1) Eljay's comment is that when Adam and Eve first had intercourse is not made explicit. It could be before or after the fall. As Eljay said, it's subjective.

2) I don't know which two verses you are talking about, but I would guess Genesis 2:24 and Genesis 4:1. They don't contradict one another, therefore they can be complimentary. In other words, they had sex before the fall and Eve didn't get pregnant, but when they had sex after the fall, she did.

This question is really unanswerable. I guess it's fun to debate, but since there is no answer, an reasonable assumption shouldn't be dismissed. I think that MirrorMirror could be right.

no spidey me and eljay were talking of why this verse was plopped in between verses 23 and 25 it just comes out of the blue my original question that was answered by eljay was about where this concept of mother came from since adam and eve did not have a "mother" so how could adam say something which he himself was not even able to do? being "leaving his mother" he had none to leave therfore he was not able to accomplish that which was being stated - therefore i asked eljay or anyone how could thisbe being stated by one who could not even do it? the answer was it was for the readers sake it was being stated by moses and he was putting forth the concept that was later developed by the laws. or do you have another take on this?

Maybe next time you will be so nice as to supply a link to another thread if it's required to understand a new thread?

My take is this: Moses was inspired by God to write the first five books of the Bible. Much of it was experienced directly by Moses, but some parts were imparted to Moses by God. Genesis, in it's entirety, was imparted by God. I believe that Genesis 2:24 is God's commentary on marriage. I don't believe that it would have been written by Moses as such, because polygamy was very popular in Moses' day and Genesis 2:24 is pretty clear that marriage should be between one man and one woman. If Moses were simply trying to control the people, the way wouldn't have been to make polygamy out to be against God's plan for marriage.