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SkyHook5652's photo
Thu 11/12/09 11:45 PM
Edited by SkyHook5652 on Thu 11/12/09 11:45 PM
Earlier I made a boo-boo... blushing
Just a small reminder to anyone interested, an argument or demonstration of thought process(which are essentially the same thing) cannot be both, contradictory to known fact, and valid.
That is false. An argument can be valid in form yet have a false premise(contradictory to known fact).

My bad!

laugh Very sloppy of me.
Well, that does it. I'm on my way down to hell to get some ice.

:wink: flowerforyou drinker

SkyHook5652's photo
Thu 11/12/09 11:21 PM
Edited by SkyHook5652 on Thu 11/12/09 11:22 PM
And I understand that your statements are necessarily a bit general, because they are intended to apply to a general viewpoint. So with that in mind, I’d like to address a couple specific things…

Concerning logic…

As I see it, the reason logic is not absolute is that it necessarily excludes first-person perspective. Now that is not intended as an indictment of logic, but only as a statement of one of the defining factors of logic. Ultimately though, all things must somehow relate to some first-person perspective or they are useless, worthless and irrelevant.
I do not see how logic necessarily excludes first-person perspective. Logic is a means of assessing what is written from a first-person perspective.
I’m differentiating between the “assessing” and the “assessed”. The logic “assesses”. The first-person perspective is “assessed”.

A computer program is a good analogy. The “instructions” exist independently of any “input”. It is only when the “input” is “processed by the instructions” that there is any connection between them.

That is the sense I which I am excluding logic from the first-person perspective. In the same way that the instructions are not a part of the input in a computer program.

If anything could be considered an absolute, it can only be the first-person perspective. Nothing has any value/use/worth/relevance until it is related to a first person perspective.
Logic demonstrates the first-person thought process in such a way that it can be assessed for truth value, through necessity.
Well, that is true, but only because it is self-referencing. That is, the rules of logic/necessity are what determine “truth”. And thus, the truth is relative to the logic - nothing more.

In the computer program analogy, that would simply equate to saying “the processing shows the truth of the output”. Thus, the truth of the output is relative to the processing, nothing more.

This is why I believe …


Therefore, for one to use [logic is not absolute] as a reason to dismiss it's use would be unreasonable, unless s/he could replace it with something more absolute. That is not possible.
… to be a limited perspective.


I think it is not only possible, but necessary, to hold first-person perspective as being “more absolute” than logic.
How can something inherently subjective(perceptual faculty) be considered absolute?
(Well I guess we’re both guilty of some fancy semantic footwork here. I said “more absolute”, which is a bit self-contradictory. And then you shortened “more absolute” to just “absolute”.)

Anyway…

Let me put it this way: A first-person perspective is an absolute requirement for meaning/relevance/usefulness/value/etc.

SkyHook5652's photo
Thu 11/12/09 10:50 PM
Edited by SkyHook5652 on Thu 11/12/09 11:24 PM
Sky wrote:
What doesn’t make sense to me is attempting to compare “science” with “belief”. As I see it, the two are inherently mutually exclusive. They start from diametrically opposed positions and work in opposite directions.

Science starts with “other” and works inward toward “self”.

Belief starts with “self” and works outward toward “other”.


Could you give some other evidence which supports these two conclusions? I have never seen that claim before, and would like to see how it was arrived at.

flowerforyou
Yeah, I can see how that could be a bit cryptic without some context.

Basically, it is the difference between the third-person perspective and the first-person perspective as reference points.

The scientific method is intended to exclude all subjectivity. The whole purpose is to determine “objective truth”. Everything is (nominally) either a direct observation of, or a comparison between, “objective truth(s)”.

Objective is, in this sense, “‘other’ perspective”.

So in investigating “self” objectively, one starts from “other” and uses observed/evaluated properties of “other” to compare to “self”.

In other words, science uses “other” as the reference point when evaluating “self”.


Belief, on the other hand, is by definition entirely “subjective”. It has no dependency whatsoever on anything objective.

So belief starts with “self” and uses that as the reference point for evaluating “other”.

Now of course, this is more a matter of definition than of evidence, since the whole subject of “evidence” implies an objective perspective. So asking for evidence is really contrary to the whole idea of differentiating between “self” and “other”. Which is kind of the whole point of my original statement.

SkyHook5652's photo
Thu 11/12/09 10:03 PM
I wanted to address a few different things here. One of which is the value of logic/critical reasoning skills, another is the idea of anthropomorphism, and last but certainly not least is an idea which I call partial evidence.



Concerning logic...

It is important to understand the value of a logically sound argument, and contrary to an earlier expressed opinion, the logic I use is not my logic. It is logic as it has been established throughout history by some of the brightest minds mankind has ever known. It is the most non-biased method of establishing truth value that we have at our disposal concerning ideas/propositions which are expressed with written language. Is it absolute???

Of course not, but what is? Therefore, for one to use [logic is not absolute[ as a reason to dismiss it's use would be unreasonable, unless s/he could replace it with something more absolute. That is not possible.

Just a small reminder to anyone interested, an argument or demonstration of thought process (which are essentially the same thing) cannot be both, contradictory to known fact, and valid.




Concerning anthropomorphism of the source of the universe...

As a result of the irrelevance to the topic at hand, I will not venture into anything outside of the idea of the original source of the universe. The label chosen does not matter here, because all of those have at least three things in common. They are claimed to *somehow* be responsible for the universe as we have come to know it, they have yet to have been proven to exist, and the very idea presupposes that the observations available to us are enough to be able to draw a conclusion about how the universe began.

The above three elements are true in all cases I can think of, regardless of whether or not personification(anthropomorphism) is involved. When that is done, it only adds variables which are not - cannot - be logically concluded as necessary. It assumes, without logically sound reason, two more things - one being that a creator/designer exists, the other being that that creator/designer has human-like emotions and needs. With our current understanding and knowledge, there is no way to know that.

If we are intellectually honest with ourselves, we must realize that because of the fact that we can only see *some* of what may be - and probably is if history is an indication - so much more, we do not have enough information to be able to draw a conclusion about the very beginning of it all. The idea of the big bang is the result of our using what we know to logically infer what we can. It is not considered to be a source, just a conclusion regarding the earliest possible(most probable) scenario based upon what is currently known. It has not been proven, but anyone who understands the knowledge behind it also knows why it has been postulated as the most likely 'beginning' according to the recognized scientific laws which our universe seems to consistently follow.





Concerning partial evidence...

Di hit on this slightly, and I approached the same idea prior to that a few times in this thread. I found it to be quite curious in a way to witness the invocation and use of scientific findings which support one's idea held with such high regard, but the same science - when demonstrated to deny the validity of the same argument - was held in a negative light as if it were unworthy of consideration. Is that not just a wee little bit hypocritical and/or intellectually dishonest? Selecting only partial supporting evidence, while leaving out or dismissing contradictory evidence from the same source is extremely bad form.

It so much reminds me of rhetorical advertising. Like in the case where two different companies make the same claim like - '4 out of 5 doctors prefer' - or - gets whites whitest out of the leading brands. Claims like those are partial evidence claims, and are meant for the sole purpose of selling the idea that that product is 'best'. The writers leave out the less compelling parts, like that the 4 out of 5 doctors were doctors purposefully chosen for their preferences. Or that the 'leading brands' included in that claim were the 'leading brands which were purposefully chosen for whatever reason' and not necessarily the reason being demonstrated in the ad, and that the claim does not include all of the most well-established or 'trusted' brands.

When one is presenting evidence, which is supposedly proven scientific fact, all of us must be stringent in our examinations of that evidence. Most often, one can find fault in the form of argument, which negates the content of the claim, regardless of its scientific accuracy. That is one of the most beautiful aspects of critical reasoning skills and logic. It recognizes the difference between truth, knowledge, and bullsh*t.

Just a few things which I wanted to say at this point in time.

flowerforyou
Very good post. (With the very minor exception of what I consider to be a few unnecessary adjectives – but that’s just my own opinion.)

And I understand that your statements are necessarily a bit general, because they are intended to apply to a general viewpoint. So with that in mind, I’d like to address a couple specific things…

Concerning logic…

As I see it, the reason logic is not absolute is that it necessarily excludes first-person perspective. Now that is not intended as an indictment of logic, but only as a statement of one of the defining factors of logic.

Ultimately though, all things must somehow relate to some first-person perspective or they are useless, worthless and irrelevant.

If anything could be considered an absolute, it can only be the first-person perspective. Nothing has any value/use/worth/relevance until it is related to a first person perspective.

This is why I believe …
Therefore, for one to use [logic is not absolute[ as a reason to dismiss it's use would be unreasonable, unless s/he could replace it with something more absolute. That is not possible.
… to be a limited perspective.

I think it is not only possible, but necessary, to hold first-person perspective as being “more absolute” than logic.


Concerning anthropomorphism of the source of the universe...

As a result of the irrelevance to the topic at hand, I will not venture into anything outside of the idea of the original source of the universe.


The idea of the big bang is the result of our using what we know to logically infer what we can. It is not considered to be a source, just a conclusion regarding the earliest possible(most probable) scenario based upon what is currently known. It has not been proven, but anyone who understands the knowledge behind it also knows why it has been postulated as the most likely 'beginning' according to the recognized scientific laws which our universe seems to consistently follow.


As Abra and I have both pointed out, the Big Bang (and its “source” – quantum fluctuation) does not really address the true question. These are “after the fact” observations. They do not point to any “first cause”. At best, they only point to a “first effect”. That is as far back as science/logic can possibly go, by their very nature. In the end, the final statement by science has always been “That’s just the way it is”.

There is no way to demonstrate a “purposful cause” using science or logic, because attempting to do so would necessarily create a paradox. (Demonstration of a first-person perspective from a third-person perspective.)

So yes, it is true that there can be no evidence of a designer, because “evidence of a designer” is, itself, a paradox.

The very most that can be done is answer the question “Does the universe have any of the properties of a design.” Well, of all the properties we can observe (i.e. “order”), the answer is yes. That’s all the “evidence” there is.

Does that mean that it must have a designer? No. No syllogism is possible.

Does it means that it must not have a designer? Still no. No syllogism is possible here either.

So, since the is no possibility of any logical/scientific evidence either way, an anthropomorphic view of a designer is no more and no less “scientifically/logically valid” than any other view – i.e. not at all.

In other words, the whole concept is entirely subjective, from start to finish, so there is really no point in even questioning it at all (other than to gain understanding of the subjective viewpoint itself.) It does not matter whether it’s logical or not. It has no bearing on anything subjective.



Concerning partial evidence...

Well, since “evidence of a designer of the universe” is a paradox in and of itself, the issue of “partial evidence” is moot.



Just my viewpoint.

And again – good post Creative. drinker

SkyHook5652's photo
Thu 11/12/09 08:14 PM
WOW!

SkyHook5652's photo
Thu 11/12/09 08:01 PM
Edited by SkyHook5652 on Thu 11/12/09 08:05 PM
if you fall into a black hole the gravity differential is so much that the gravity on your head (if you go in head first) would be a thousand times greater than the gravity on your feet

which would just shred you into your component atoms (and then the same effect would even destroy the atoms) so fast you would never know
Relative to whom? If I'm not mistaken, time is distorted rather heavily by the intense gravity in a Black Hole. In such a state of acceleration, it would take weeks for a person to be shredded into his/her respective components (atoms/subatomic particles).
Interesting.

I did not know atoms could be destroyed.
That's what makes atom bombs work.

In layman's terms, what actually happens is that part of the atom is converted from matter into energy according the good old E=MC^2 equation.

Okay, I thought the atom was just "split" but I guess if it blows up you can say it has been "destroyed."

I wonder how such a tiny quanta could cause such a huge explosion.
Well, using meters as a measure of distance, C^2 (the speed of light squared) is something like 10,000,000,000,000. It doesn't take much M (mass) to multiply that up to a huge amount of E (energy).

And yes, the atoms do "split". But during the process of splitting, at least one of the approximately 400 "pieces" of the atom (electrons, neutrons, protons) is converted directly into energy (it's mass multiplied by 10,000,000,000,000). The rest of the pieces just become smaller atoms.

The amount of mass that actually gets convered into energy in an atomic bomb blast, is quite small. I don't really know the exact figure, but seem I recall reading somewhere that it could be measure in milligrams.
A hypernova causing a gamma ray burst by collapsing into a black hole releases 10 to the 54 power ergs of energy.
Always wondered how an much energy an "erg" represented in everyday human experience.

It took a while, but I think I've got a good example now. This is not exact, but gives a general idea of the "order of magnitude".

An "erg" is approximately the amount of enery required to move a marble a couple inches in one second.

Not a lot by itself, but add 54 zeros to the right of that and it becomes virtually incomprehensible on a human scale.

Thanks, Metalwing, for the inspiration to finally look that up. drinker

SkyHook5652's photo
Thu 11/12/09 07:14 PM
What's the biggest difference between a solar panel and a solar planet? I don't need to tell me what they are, but I ask you to please tell me what the BIGGEST difference between these two types of things are.
the biggest difference is in size and/or mass.
Yes. If we consider man-made solar panels. At the present. But there could be or could have been made in the past or in the future very big solar panels. There is a biggest difference betweent the two types of things that is bigger than size differences. This is not a test; I don't know the answer. So anyone's guess could be the right one.
A solar panel only converts light into eletricity.

A solar planet converts light and heat into other things through different processes - photosynthesis and evaporation to name a couple obvious ones.

SkyHook5652's photo
Thu 11/12/09 07:02 PM
Edited by SkyHook5652 on Thu 11/12/09 07:06 PM
if you fall into a black hole the gravity differential is so much that the gravity on your head (if you go in head first) would be a thousand times greater than the gravity on your feet

which would just shred you into your component atoms (and then the same effect would even destroy the atoms) so fast you would never know
Relative to whom? If I'm not mistaken, time is distorted rather heavily by the intense gravity in a Black Hole. In such a state of acceleration, it would take weeks for a person to be shredded into his/her respective components (atoms/subatomic particles).
Interesting.

I did not know atoms could be destroyed.
That's what makes atom bombs work.

In layman's terms, what actually happens is that part of the atom is converted from matter into energy according the good old E=MC^2 equation.

Okay, I thought the atom was just "split" but I guess if it blows up you can say it has been "destroyed."

I wonder how such a tiny quanta could cause such a huge explosion.
Well, using meters-per-second as a measure of speed, C^2 (the speed of light squared) is something like 10,000,000,000,000. It doesn't take much M (mass) to multiply that up to a huge amount of E (energy).

And yes, the atoms do "split". But during the process of splitting, at least one of the approximately 400 "pieces" of the atom (electrons, neutrons, protons) is converted directly into energy (it's mass multiplied by 10,000,000,000,000). The rest of the pieces just become smaller atoms.

The amount of mass that actually gets convered into energy in an atomic bomb blast, is quite small. I don't really know the exact figure, but seem I recall reading somewhere that it could be measure in milligrams.


SkyHook5652's photo
Thu 11/12/09 02:50 PM
http://www.naturalhandyman.com/iip/inftoi/inftoi1.html

"Many toilets are designed to have the water enter the toilet bowl through a series of small holes under the porcelain seat rim. These holes are angled slightly, causing the water in the bowl to swirl around. This swirling action, combined with the speed of the entering water, causes the contents of the bowl to quickly and thoroughly exit from the base of the bowl, into the waste pipes, and, hopefully, out of your life forever. "
One of the reasons for this design (according to a plumber friend) is that the "swirling" motion of the water helps avoid clogs by "keeping things moving".

SkyHook5652's photo
Thu 11/12/09 02:47 PM
if you fall into a black hole the gravity differential is so much that the gravity on your head (if you go in head first) would be a thousand times greater than the gravity on your feet

which would just shred you into your component atoms (and then the same effect would even destroy the atoms) so fast you would never know
Relative to whom? If I'm not mistaken, time is distorted rather heavily by the intense gravity in a Black Hole. In such a state of acceleration, it would take weeks for a person to be shredded into his/her respective components (atoms/subatomic particles).


Interesting.

I did not know atoms could be destroyed.
That's what makes atom bombs work.

In layman's terms, what actually happens is that part of the atom is converted from matter into energy according the good old E=MC^2 equation.

SkyHook5652's photo
Thu 11/12/09 01:15 PM
Well then I guess I must be misinformed.

No biggie.

If it works, it works. :smile:

drinker

SkyHook5652's photo
Thu 11/12/09 12:33 PM
Edited by SkyHook5652 on Thu 11/12/09 12:36 PM
Ok, here I go…

Consider the rotation of the earth. As it rotates, the equator is moving faster than the poles (relative to the center of the earth). That is, a point on the equator will take 24 hours to go 24,000 miles (the circumference of the entire earth) whereas a point 10 feet from the pole will take 24 hour to move only about 60 feet (Circumference = 3.14*Diameter).

Now as the earth rotates, it “drags” the atmosphere along with it.

So we have air moving at different speeds depending on where it is on the earth.

Thus if we pick a single spot on the earth, the air on it’s equatorial side is moving faster than the air on its pole side.

Now let’s switch from there to a different example.

If you take a pencil, place it in you flattened palm, place the other flattened palm on top of it, and then move one of the hands, the pencil will “spin”.

So if we look back at the earth/air example, we can compare it to the pencil example…

The air on the equatorial side is the moving hand (faster), the air on the pole side is the unmoving hand (slower), and the spinning of the pencil is the spinning of air that makes up a cyclone/hurricane.

This is why cyclones/hurricanes “spin” in different directions depending on whether they’re north or south of the equator – the relative speeds of the air currents that cause the spin are on different sides of the center of spin.

And from a wider perspective, this same effect is what causes the “trade winds”.

However, as tngxl65 noted, the forces of this effect on a toilet are so infinitesimal that they really have no bearing on the direction of spin of the water going down the drain.

drinker
The trade winds and North, South, East, or West movement of the air have nothing to do with the rotational movement of a hurricane. The effect is caused by the movement of air up or down. Low pressure areas like hurricanes always spin in the same direction (on it's respective side of the equator) because the air is going UP. High pressure areas are always going in the opposite direction because the air is falling down. This is one of the most dominate facts to know in understanding aviation weather. Not only is it what causes hurricanes, it is what stops them. As soon as the hurricane is removed from it's source of power, i.e., rising low pressure air, it starts to die.
Maybe I need to clarify.


The horizontal circular motion of the trades winds is a result of the coriolis effect, just as the horizontal circular motion of hurricanes is a result of the coriolis effect.

It is the vertical motion of the air that "pumps energy into" a hurricane. But it is the corilois effect that gives it it's horizontal "spin".

If there were no rotation of the earth to give them "spin" through the coriolis effect, the trade winds would only move vertically, instead of horizontally.

SkyHook5652's photo
Thu 11/12/09 12:23 PM
The coriolis effect isn't significant enough to affect water going down the drain. Other factors have significantly more influence. The water in a drain can spiral just as easily to the left as to the right. The pressures and resistances are not truly uniform and therefore a whirlpool is created during the draining process, in the direction of least resistance.

Hurricances, however, always rotate in the same direction... or rather all above the equator rotate in one direction and all below the equator rotate the other. The side closest to the equator will be rotating toward the east, the direction of the earth's rotation. They are large enough to be more heavily influenced by the coriolis effect.
You are correct on the hurricane but wrong on the toilet. When I was in Ecuador I went to the equator toilet exhibit (somewhat less fancy than the Smithsonian). They had three toilets set up, one on the equator and one on each side. The two on each side flushed normally but in opposite directions. The one in the middle, located exactly on the equator, acted like it had a turd stuck in it but was made of glass to prove that it didn't. Objects that fall on a spinning planets surface have a rotational acceleration emparted regardless of size.
Well let's put it this way...

Mathematically speaking, there is not enough distance between the two sides of the toilet bowl for the earths spin to create enough of a corolis effect to overcome the inherent turbulence in the water in the bowl.

So whatever it is that caused the toilet whirpools, it is most unlikely that it was the coriolis effect.

SkyHook5652's photo
Thu 11/12/09 11:49 AM
Edited by SkyHook5652 on Thu 11/12/09 11:50 AM
Ok, here I go…

Consider the rotation of the earth. As it rotates, the equator is moving faster than the poles (relative to the center of the earth). That is, a point on the equator will take 24 hours to go 24,000 miles (the circumference of the entire earth) whereas a point 10 feet from the pole will take 24 hour to move only about 60 feet (Circumference = 3.14*Diameter).

Now as the earth rotates, it “drags” the atmosphere along with it.

So we have air moving at different speeds depending on where it is on the earth.

Thus if we pick a single spot on the earth, the air on it’s equatorial side is moving faster than the air on its pole side.

Now let’s switch from there to a different example.

If you take a pencil, place it in you flattened palm, place the other flattened palm on top of it, and then move one of the hands, the pencil will “spin”.

So if we look back at the earth/air example, we can compare it to the pencil example…

The air on the equatorial side is the moving hand (faster), the air on the pole side is the unmoving hand (slower), and the spinning of the pencil is the spinning of air that makes up a cyclone/hurricane.

This is why cyclones/hurricanes “spin” in different directions depending on whether they’re north or south of the equator – the relative speeds of the air currents that cause the spin are on different sides of the center of spin.

And from a wider perspective, this same effect is what causes the “trade winds”.

However, as tngxl65 noted, the forces of this effect on a toilet are so infinitesimal that they really have no bearing on the direction of spin of the water going down the drain.

drinker
Okay then why do all my experiments come up ... counter clockwise?
Possible explanation - three words: "Law of Attraction." (Or two words: "Creating Reality") And you know that's not sarcastic, coming from me.
:wink: flowerforyou :banana:

SkyHook5652's photo
Thu 11/12/09 11:35 AM
Ok, here I go…

Consider the rotation of the earth. As it rotates, the equator is moving faster than the poles (relative to the center of the earth). That is, a point on the equator will take 24 hours to go 24,000 miles (the circumference of the entire earth) whereas a point 10 feet from the pole will take 24 hour to move only about 60 feet (Circumference = 3.14*Diameter).

Now as the earth rotates, it “drags” the atmosphere along with it.

So we have air moving at different speeds depending on where it is on the earth.

Thus if we pick a single spot on the earth, the air on it’s equatorial side is moving faster than the air on its pole side.

Now let’s switch from there to a different example.

If you take a pencil, place it in you flattened palm, place the other flattened palm on top of it, and then move one of the hands, the pencil will “spin”.

So if we look back at the earth/air example, we can compare it to the pencil example…

The air on the equatorial side is the moving hand (faster), the air on the pole side is the unmoving hand (slower), and the spinning of the pencil is the spinning of air that makes up a cyclone/hurricane.

This is why cyclones/hurricanes “spin” in different directions depending on whether they’re north or south of the equator – the relative speeds of the air currents that cause the spin are on different sides of the center of spin.

And from a wider perspective, this same effect is what causes the “trade winds”.

However, as tngxl65 noted, the forces of this effect on a toilet are so infinitesimal that they really have no bearing on the direction of spin of the water going down the drain.

drinker

SkyHook5652's photo
Thu 11/12/09 11:02 AM
Edited by SkyHook5652 on Thu 11/12/09 11:09 AM
so these electrons don't go in a type of circular motion around the center of the atom? They go in all different directions.

I mean one electron goes in a type of circular rotation doesn't it.

If not then these atom diagrams surely are misleading to me for it shows that they are orbiting around the center.

what
This is a little difficult to picture since it's somewhat counter-intuitive. But consider that an atom is thought of as having a sphereical shape (like a ball), not a flat/disc shape (like the solar system with it's planetary orbits).

So yes, it is true that the diagrams are not really accurate - the electrons are not really moving in a "circular" orbit. If they could be considered to be "moving" at all, they would be moving in a "spherical" orbit.

But from the perspective of quantum mechanics, they aren't really "moving". It is more accurate to say that they are at all points in the spherical orbit (or "valence shell" as Quiet correctly labeled it) at the same time. (That's the counter-intuitive part, and what Quiet means by "they are potentially at all places at all times. more like a cloud of probability.")

Also, just a little more on "valence shell"...

The electron orbits are divided into "layers" that are different distances from the uncleus, similar to the different distances of the planetary orbits from the sun. And if I recall correctly, the innermost shell can have a maximum of two electrons, the next shell heading "outward"from the nucleus can have four electrons, and so on, doubling with each layer of shell.

SkyHook5652's photo
Thu 11/12/09 10:27 AM
Actually, the whirlpool that is formed by a toilet is exactly like the matter falling into a black hole ... and for the same reason, i.e., gravity.


hmmmm. not quite. if gravity was the only phenomenon affecting water falling, why would it not fall strait down on all sides? why the rotating motion of a whirlpool? anybody?
Ooo, Oooo, I know, I know, pick me, pick me! :laughing:

SkyHook5652's photo
Thu 11/12/09 10:26 AM
Edited by SkyHook5652 on Thu 11/12/09 10:33 AM
That's the Magnetic North Pole, rather than the true North Pole. It's 11 or so degrees off from the true North Pole.
hmmmm. not quite. magnetic variation as it's called, varies depending on where you are on earth. yes, where you live, the east coast i'd guess as you used eleven degrees, variation may amount to eleven degrees. but variation changes as you travel east or west. at two lines of longitude on the globe variation is zero meaning true north and magnetic north line up exactly. the magnetic north pole is changing as well so navigation charts must be altered from time to time. the reason that compasses are not much good near the poles is that magnetic variation can be so huge as to render them useless.

here's an interesting question. let's say you are flying directly over the true north pole, that is the point where the earth's axis would protrude if it were visible. if you want to fly to new york, what heading would you take? what heading for paris? moscow? australia? maybe you'll understand why navigating over the poles requires training that involves more than simply looking at a compass.
Here's a way to visualize this...

Draw a line through the earth that goes directly from one point to another on the surface. Then, for every point on that line, draw a line from the center of the earth to the surface of the earth. This creates a line on the surface of the earth that is the shortest distance between the two points on the surface. (Of course, this doesn't work if the two surface points are exactly opposite each other. In that case, any line on the surface, going from one point to the other, would be the same length.)

SkyHook5652's photo
Thu 11/12/09 10:16 AM
Edited by SkyHook5652 on Thu 11/12/09 10:18 AM
Abra wrote:
There can be no such thing as an 'objective' third-person view.

Every view is necessarily subjective.

The best you can hope for is agreement between subjective views.

All of science is necessarily always from a 'first-person' perspective. That's all that exists. It's all we have to work with.

What we call an 'objective' view, is really nothing more than 'subjective agreement' as Jeanniebean has tried to point out repeatedly, obviously to no avail.


Perhaps I have missed the point as well then. Although there may not be a single flawless "scientific method" for every possible scenario, we do have a firm grasp on what a scientific method should consist of.

When used properly, an 'objective' third-person view CAN be applied by any other person, its called scientific method. Obviously that prevents opinion and personal perspective from confounding experimental results.

Am I wrong? What have I missed.
Your not wrong, we just have naysayers that once there argument falls flat they attack the very methods of understanding.

Once there arguments are shown to be illogical and not backed by evidence they claim logic fails.
Nah.

They are simply able to recognize that logic is not an absolute, and thus, they are not required to be limited by it.

They just use different methods of understanding, that's all.

SkyHook5652's photo
Thu 11/12/09 10:08 AM
Now that I think about it. If math would be quantized would that help physics in finding more answers about existence of a designer, or at least come closer to new possibilities?
If I understand correctly what both you and Abra are referring to, I think that if math were quantized, it would not longer be math - it would be something else. I can't even imagine what "quantized math" would be like.

But it's an intersting idea.