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SkyHook5652's photo
Fri 11/13/09 09:53 PM
Hi Everyone

Let's see, what is absolute - change, at least in our universe.

The only absolute is change because the nature of our universe is energy and energy is either a potential action (waiting for a nudge) or it is in flux.

What we think of as change is a product of motion and the laws that dictate the nature of our universe are gounded in motion.

Evolution of all things within the universe is merely the product of the emergent qualities attributed to the universe.

Time is not absolute, but rather a product of motion because time denotes a position within space. Our concept of time is the product of action or potential action witch is the only constant and therefore the only absolute we can be sure exists in our universe.

Oddly, it is the nature of this absolute that makes it impossible for other absolutes to exist, because nothing is ever in exactly the same space at the same time more than once.
Excellent explanation Redy. I'm jealous. biggrin

SkyHook5652's photo
Fri 11/13/09 09:52 PM
Edited by SkyHook5652 on Fri 11/13/09 09:53 PM

Everything physical has duration, even if that duration is almost infinitessimal, such as with some sub-atomic particles, or virtually infinite, such as the univers as a whole.

But you do touch on an interesting thing about "change" itself. That is, if something "changes", is it still "the same thing", or is it actually "a different thing"? It is axiomatic that "change" requires "time", and thus "space" as well. But what else does it require? Quantum non-locality points to some interesting possibilities here. If two things separated by space instantly "change" sychronously, are they really "different"? Or are they actually the same thing? --Sky


I'm clipping out some pieces here, as it's the only way I can manage to understand where you are going. If you say everything physical has duration, then how do you incorporate the finding that energy is actually matter and matter is actually compressed energy? For these I have come to believe (discovery channel) are one and the same.
Maybe I don't understand the question...

Both matter and energy are physical and they both have duration.

Or we conould create a new word, "mattergy" (contraction of matter and energy) to incorporate their one-and-the-same-ness, and say the same thing using that new word...

Mattergy is physical and has duration.

Note that, in the strictly scientific sense, energy, space and time are just as "physical" as matter.

SkyHook5652's photo
Fri 11/13/09 09:19 PM
Edited by SkyHook5652 on Fri 11/13/09 09:21 PM
In the case of the quantum field we have no idea what causes the quantum field to bring things into being. Therefore to make any judgements about intent/purpose is meaningless. Thus we can't logically conclude that it has none. All we can logically recognize is that we can't say.


To me what you have accomplished in the above statement is to admit there is no evidence for intelligent design.

If you were seeking evidence of intelligent design and using the quantum field as the object of that design - then that is as far as your designer has gone.

From that point whatever occurred is no longer part of the design but rather a consequence of it having been designed in the first place. In other words, any matter which exists would simply be a byproduct of the design - or perhaps a byproduct of having created the design.

Either way, consequence or byproduct, there is still no current evidence of intelligence behind the design for several reasons.

First, we have very little knowledge or understanding of the quantum field, so it can not be used to support a claim that it provides evidence of being designed. Which you have obviously conceeded in the above statment.

However, if we were to proceed on the premise that the QF might have been 'designed' we cannot maintian that because the QF might have been designed that there was an intelligence behind it, it might have been the only possible outcome of what pre-existed it, as in the only natural form it could take.

Secondly, any matter which eminates through the quantum field is a direct result of the field and not the designer - therefore, matter itself is not the design.

Thirdly, if your intention is to imply that the QF was designed for the purpose of creating matter and that the matter was a pre-programmed part of the design, then we have a greater argument against the intelligence of a so-called designer and in favor of natural universal laws.

If the program is only to produce matter, then there is nothing to guide how that matter interacts or connects other than what exists within its inherant properties.

While this limitation is obvious in the singular pieces of matter which are generated - the interactions between these pieces of matter broadens the scope of limitation. With enough variables (the matter which QM materializes) there may be a nearly infanite pattern capability but these are not directed, or in and of themselves designed but are simply the consequence of how the particular pieces of matter begin their interactive journey. How this process unfolds may just as simply be the consequence of which atoms came together first. (ie. hydrogen and helium)

For example, in our own universe we find only certain elements and the way in which they combined created the foundation for the natural laws from which all other combinations would arise.

This would explain why there appears to be so much overall confomity, pattern, and unity without ascribing any matter, which we currenly have knowledge of, to an intellegent design theory.

An attempt to do so brings up the question of exceptions. Why don't all planets have exactly the same axis tilt. Why do some planets have an opposing orbit, and why aren't all solar systems exactly the same? Why do humans come in different shapes and have different physical anomolies? Why doesn't DNA always function perfectly - why are there genetic diseases and differences between humans and animals and plants?

You see, to argue that the universe is the product of intelligent design, requires that the premise of WHAT IS THE DESIGN (what are the characteristics and properties of the desgn) must be idendified. If the design is only the QM field then we currently have no evidence of intelligent design.
Yes Redy, you’re absolutely right. We (the “believers”, for lack of a better word) pretty much reached that point a couple pages back. And we’ve also takent it a step farther to the point of concluding that nothing “in” the universe can be considered “evidence” of a designer. To do so would constitute a paradox, the short form of which is: proof of an unknown first-person perspective from a third-person perspective. So basically, the OP question asks for the resolution of a paradox. It can’t be done with logic because it is inherently illogical.

SkyHook5652's photo
Fri 11/13/09 08:09 PM
Yes - the universe is expanding - but what is it expanding into?

Perhaps we are hung up on a definition in regards to this OP.

So what defines universe? Think about it...

What defines space - must matter exist in all space?

:wink:
I keep trying to imagine space devoid of any reference point (i.e matter) and I find that I cannot. Intuitively, I can't see either matter or space existing independently the other.

But on the other hand, if I think about something "at the edge of space", I can imagine myself moving "away from it". (Although, there would be no difference between me moving away from it, and it moving away from me.) But really, that just makes me one of the reference points, so again, I cannot imagine looking "out" from an object at the edge of the universe.

But on an even other hand, I can imagine a "massless first-person viewpoint" moving away from the edge.

Which kinda leads to the intersting idea that it is "the action of viewing" that creates space.

Just some ruminations.

SkyHook5652's photo
Fri 11/13/09 06:10 PM
It's always expanding and it's us that helps it to do so...
:thumbsup:

SkyHook5652's photo
Fri 11/13/09 06:08 PM
hhhmm sometimes an arguement for say is a heated differing in opinion or point of view. When an agruement begins it is important to remember that compromise, reasoning, and understanding msut come into play and recognize the beginnings of esculation..Finally, in relationships remember why you are together....cos you love one another..:smile:
In terms of "ultimate purpose" I see all communication (or attmpted communication) as having the purpose of achieving agreement and/or understanding. (Understanding here meaning "comperehension" as opposed to something like "compassion" as I believe it is meant above.)

SkyHook5652's photo
Fri 11/13/09 06:03 PM
I would agree with Quite.

Based on the Big Bang theory, it would seem that it must have a finite size.

But that's only if the Big Bang theory is correct.

As to "what's on the outside"?

I'm not even sure that question can have a sensible meaning. If space is finite, then there really is no such thing as "outside", since outside and inside are relative to some "divider". But the concept of a "divider implies space on both sides of the divider. So the concept of "outside the univers" is really a pretty meaningless concept - at least in terms of what we know about spactime.

SkyHook5652's photo
Fri 11/13/09 05:52 PM
Edited by SkyHook5652 on Fri 11/13/09 05:54 PM
Circular motion is due to centripetal force exerted by nucleus on electron and sun on planet.this force keeps the planet and sun at a fixed distance which is only possible in circular motion.for the same region if an electron enter in a magnetic field in a perpendicular direction it starts revolving in circle due to force exerted by magnetic field

Just to clarify a bit here, centripital force can be any force that keeps an orbiting object from flying away from it's center of orbit. In the case of Sun/Planet or planet/moon, the centripital force is gravity. In the case of electron/nucleus, the centripital force is magnetism. If you were to tie a string to a rock and swing it around, the centripital force would be the string.

SkyHook5652's photo
Fri 11/13/09 05:39 PM
Edited by SkyHook5652 on Fri 11/13/09 05:41 PM
Here Here!!
Nice work SkyHook
Thanks. flowerforyou

And I realize I left out another common meaning for absolute: as a synonym for "universal".

In this sense, things like "change" and "space" and "time" would be absolute. That is, everything changes and everything occupies space and everything has duration.
Cool. I never thought of that distinction. You politely corrected my word usage. Thanks Sky.

But does everything have duration?? Really? Or is it all about an endless continuum of changes, which we decide to stop-gap, if you will, in order to identify the processes in an intelligible way?
Everything physical has duration, even if that duration is almost infinitessimal, such as with some sub-atomic particles, or virtually infinite, such as the univers as a whole.

But you do touch on an interesting thing about "change" itself. That is, if something "changes", is it still "the same thing", or is it actually "a different thing"? It is axiomatic that "change" requires "time", and thus "space" as well. But what else does it require? Quantum non-locality points to some interesting possibilities here. If two things separated by space instantly "change" sychronously, are they really "different"? Or are they actually the same thing?

One could actually say that things themselves don't change - all that really changes is "relationships between things".

In "The Holographic Universe" hypothesis, it is just as you say - we, as the viewers of the Holographic Univers, are the source of the "stop-gaps" that produce the intelligibility.

Just some mind games. It all depends on your viewpoint. :smile:

SkyHook5652's photo
Fri 11/13/09 05:24 PM
Now you've got me looking up the difference between universal and absolute...
Absolute
One of Websters answers: Unrelated and unaffected by anything else
Unaffected by circumstances of time, space or material.

Universal: Any general or widely held concept or principle. Applying to all members of a particular class or genre.

So, it looks like the difference here is mainly in its usage. Absolute is used for as a basis for measurements in science,
whereas Universal is used by orators in philosophical discussions or gross generalizations of people, places and events.
Right?
Well, in the strictest scientific sense, there is no such thing as an absolute measurement, since space and time themselves are relative (ref: The Theory of Relativity.) But in general, I'd say that is a workable distinction.

SkyHook5652's photo
Fri 11/13/09 04:16 PM
Here Here!!
Nice work SkyHook
Thanks. flowerforyou

And I realize I left out another common meaning for absolute: as a synonym for "universal".

In this sense, things like "change" and "space" and "time" would be absolute. That is, everything changes and everything occupies space and everything has duration.

SkyHook5652's photo
Fri 11/13/09 03:02 PM
ok, all conflict aside, i have a question about the whole 'there are no absolutes' deal. its probably been asked before so mabey someone could help me catch up, but math is an absolute correct? (im not sure exactly, but i would imagine it is)
so if math is absolute then there are absolutes? or adleast one?
im not arguing for or against i just need clarification.
thx:smile:
Oh gosh, now we have to go "there" again...

It really depends on what you consider "absolute" to mean.

Math is a creation of mankind. It is (intended to be) a "sybolic representation of reality". In other words, it's "a map of the territory" not "the territory" itself. So, since it is "dependent on" man for it's existence, it is not an absolute.

On the other hand, one might consider a "concept" to be absolute, in that it is not dependent on anything material. So in that sense, math could be considered absolute. But by that definition, any concept at all would have to be considered an absolute as well - even a concept as mundane as "chair" would be an absolute, as woold something at the other end of the spectrum, such as the concept of "I".

So pick your definition/meaning and go from there.

drinker

SkyHook5652's photo
Fri 11/13/09 02:23 PM
No problem. That will cost ya!laugh drinker

Now that's what I'm talkin' 'bout! :laughing:

SkyHook5652's photo
Fri 11/13/09 02:23 PM
Edited by SkyHook5652 on Fri 11/13/09 02:25 PM
Yes I downloaded those papers. I haven't read them yet though. I think I get the gist.

So now that I know where Shoku, Creative and Billyclub are coming from, I guess there is no further thing to discuss. They are students of a different science.
Yes, that truly is pretty much what it boils down to.

But hey, it's something to do. We continue to throw our respective "mud" at each other and count ourselves a point when any of it sticks.

:banana:

SkyHook5652's photo
Fri 11/13/09 02:19 PM
Sky, Jeannie, and Abra

VS

Shoku, Billy, and Creative

Who will have the ultimate answers?

Stay tuned after these commercials.

Don't mind me, I just hand out the sodaslaugh drinker
I wanna see the Ring Girl. drool

SkyHook5652's photo
Fri 11/13/09 02:12 PM
Edited by SkyHook5652 on Fri 11/13/09 02:13 PM
I’d like to refresh some food for thought in the beginning of this second part of the thread:

Are humans a property of this universe?

If so, then is not anthropomorphism also a property of this universe?

If so, then shouldn’t these properties of this universe be considered when considering the true nature of the universe?
Good point.

Although I think it will probably look like Rodney King to the logic police. :wink: laugh
I see the humor you are eluding to, but I fail to see how it applies

Consider the quote you quoted:

"An argument can be valid in form yet have a false premise (contradictory to known fact)."



Anthropomorphism exists within this universe. Therefore it is indeed a property of this universe. That's a fact.

To set up any logical reasoning based on a premise that anthropomorphism is irrelevant to the true nature of the unvierse is to ignore the facts.
Honestly, I really do see the logic in the "no designer" viewpoint. It is really quite simple...

There is no observed intent/purpose inherent in the quantun field. And since the quantum field is "the source of all things", anthropomorphism (and thus its components "purpose" and "intent") is really just an illusion.

It's a sweet bit of logic.

But it does ignore the possibility that the quantum field itself may be the result of intent/purpose. And that possibility is ignored because it is not observed.

So there is no choice but to conclude that there is no proof either way.

SkyHook5652's photo
Fri 11/13/09 01:41 PM
Edited by SkyHook5652 on Fri 11/13/09 01:46 PM
The fundamental order we observe in all things (i.e. that which makes up all other observables) has no observed intent/purpose.
Therefore, all intent/purpose is illusory.
Could that be because intent/purpose is subjective and cannot be 'observed' only assumed?
Bingo! :wink:

And that's the exact reason for these two papers:
http://www.princeton.edu/~pear/pdfs/1997-JSE-SOS.pdf
http://www.princeton.edu/~pear/pdfs/Change_The_Rules.pdf

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Fri 11/13/09 01:39 PM
Several people have used the term "naturalism" in an attempt to explain how the universe evolved intelligent life without an intelligent designer.

I have created this thread to ask what people mean by Naturalism?

I will post an answer to Shoku on something he said to me.

Shoku, you stated that:
"Naturalism explains."
I asked:

Naturalism explains? Is this a person or a new religion? What are you talking about when you say naturalism explains?


Shoku answered:

"I'm referring to all of the sciences put together without a creator from outside of "the box" having any involvement in it.

I guess, to condense it down to a single phrase, I'm talking about order without intention."



So you are defining "naturalism" as being the conclusion of/by "all of the sciences put together" that there is no 'creator' or 'intelligent design'?

When did they (science) conclude or assume this premise?

This is not an explanation, it is an assumption or a conclusion; and you are now making the claim that it is the conclusion of "all sciences put together."

Therefore, if this is your definition of "naturalism" it cannot explain anything because it is not an "explanation," it is a "conclusion." ( ----> yours, not science's)

Therefore your conclusion is that "order without intention" explains everything. That is a conclusion, not an explanation.

Do you really think that is an "explanation?"

Not sufficient. It looks like a circular argument to me.
Considering what Shoku said, and taking into consideration an exchange I had with Bushi, which resulted in the statement “there is not intent or purpose, only structure and interaction”, I think this is the way the logic goes.

The fundamental order we observe in all things (i.e. that which makes up all other observables) has no observed intent/purpose.
Therefore, all intent/purpose is illusory.
Which seems perfectly reasonable until you start looking at things like the man/machine interface research done at PEAR.

SkyHook5652's photo
Fri 11/13/09 01:37 PM
Several people have used the term "naturalism" in an attempt to explain how the universe evolved intelligent life without an intelligent designer.

I have created this thread to ask what people mean by Naturalism?

I will post an answer to Shoku on something he said to me.

Shoku, you stated that:
"Naturalism explains."

I asked:

Naturalism explains? Is this a person or a new religion? What are you talking about when you say naturalism explains?


Shoku answered:

"I'm referring to all of the sciences put together without a creator from outside of "the box" having any involvement in it.

I guess, to condense it down to a single phrase, I'm talking about order without intention."



So you are defining "naturalism" as being the conclusion of/by "all of the sciences put together" that there is no 'creator' or 'intelligent design'?

When did they (science) conclude or assume this premise?

This is not an explanation, it is an assumption or a conclusion; and you are now making the claim that it is the conclusion of "all sciences put together."

Therefore, if this is your definition of "naturalism" it cannot explain anything because it is not an "explanation," it is a "conclusion." ( ----> yours, not science's)

Therefore your conclusion is that "order without intention" explains everything. That is a conclusion, not an explanation.

Do you really think that is an "explanation?"

Not sufficient. It looks like a circular argument to me.
Considering what Shoku said, and taking into consideration an exchange I had with Bushi, which resulted in the statement “there is not intent or purpose, only structure and interaction”, I think this is the way the logic goes.

The fundamental order we observe in all things (i.e. that which makes up all other observables) has no observed intent/purpose.
Therefore, all intent/purpose is illusory.

SkyHook5652's photo
Fri 11/13/09 01:28 PM
But Sky, he is defining "Naturalism" as "Order without intent."

To say that, he is making the assumption that "no intent" is involved. That is a conclusion.

Then, he (and others) claim that "naturalism explains" how the universe evolved without intelligent designer(s.)

Which is just stating that the universe evolved (and order arose from chaos) without intent, purpose or design...which means that there is no intelligent design.

A circular argument.

Therefore, "naturalism" is not an "explanation" it is a conclusion, --according to his definition of "naturalism."

I will need a different definition of naturalism.
Ok, I see what you mean now.

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