Community > Posts By > SkyHook5652
Topic:
Building a belief system...
Edited by
SkyHook5652
on
Sun 01/24/10 01:58 PM
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In order to utilize logic, there must be at least two data to compare, and a standard of some sort that can be used to measure them (which may be one of the perceptions/data).
This may be true in a strict sense, but this 'first piece and second piece of data' scenario doesn't necessarily apply to, say, toddlers. Even in the womb, fetuses are receiving information, and as soon as they open their eyes they are swamped with data.
So at the point where the very first perception/datum is received, it is not possible to either reject it as false, or accept it as true, because there is no second datum to compare it with. It is only after a second perception/datum is received that any comparison can be made. So there can be no belief system until there have been at least two perceptions/data received. But even at this point, there can be no logical reason for assigning truth or falsehood to either perception/datum. There must (eventually) be some completely arbitrary decision made. Very early on they experience phenomena such as: believing the toy is in their parents hand, and discovering that it isn't. The basic process of sorting data and understanding it on a basic level is so complex and dependent on development which takes months or years that by long before the child can even speak they have gone way past the 'first two pieces of incompatible data' scenario. However, the way you defined "innate sense of logical reasoning" makes it dependent upon time. That is, there is a cause, and following that, there is an effect. But then how are the cause and the effect asssociated with each other? The simply observation of two events happening at different times does not necessarily indicate any inherent connection between them. So there must still be an arbitrary decision made (association of cause and effect if you will) in order for there to be any belief system at all. There may be an arbitrari-ness to the decision in the earliest stages, and even adults confuse correlation with causation; but with time and the ability to learn from mistakes, sane children can come to learn that there is such a thing as 'cause and effect', and thereby be better equipped to influence and predict events in their surroundings.The bottom line here is that one must make a decision of some sort, (and that decision cannot be anything but arbitrary) before there can be a belief system. Thus, there is nothing in a belief system that is not ultimately based (either directly or indirectly) on an arbitrary decision. You set out a chain of logical reasoning which, if valid, would only apply to the first pieces of data and 'beliefs' (to use the term loosely, so we can include the earliest ways of relating to data).
Lets not mistake chronology with logical dependency. Of course fetuses and newborns are ill-equipped to make sound decisions on how to interpret data. Long before a human can make statements about the world, the sane ones have learned quite a lot through their interactions with reality. ... since the belief system is created by a decision, it seems reasonable to assume that it can be changed (or even "uncreated") by a decision. I am in complete agreement with this statement (substituting 'decisions' for 'decision'), but the two kinds of decisions are not equal...for adults, having belief systems brings comfort; the decisions we use to build them tend to make us more comfortable, while the decisions we use to "uncreate" them tend to make us uncomfortable.I don't necessarily disagree with anything you've said here. But I was trying to look at the genesis of the belief system, not how it functions once it is already in place. Once you start talking about anything after the first two bits of information and the necessarily arbitrary decision that must be made before a belief system can exist, you're talking about a fully functional system, not the mechanism or process which brought that system into being. In short, there was a point in time when the belief system did not exist, and there is a later point in time where a belief system does exist. What I'm looking at is what happened in between those two times. As I see it, in order for a belief system to come into existence at all, there had to be: 1) at least two data 2) at least one arbitrary decision regarding those two data. And the making of that initial arbitrary decision marks the creation of the belief system. Also, it is recognized that the initial decision that creates the belief system does not have to be made based on only two data. That decision could be postponed until many data are received. But in any case, per Creative's definition of "belief system" it is that initial, arbitrary decision that marks the point at which the belief system came into being. |
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there appears to be a great deal of criticism of the pear and sri work in this area;
You're absolutely right. There is criticism of PEAR and SRI research, just as there is with virtually any research.
for example; http://www.skepdic.com/pear.html That's why I said "determination of reliability is up to you". Personally, I have had first hand experience with remote perception and as far as I'm concerned, observation always trumps logic. But I totally understand that it is largely dependent on the subjective, so not only is difficult to demonstrate objectively (as was discusssed in the linked document) but it is difficult to even conceive of subjectively, for one who has never experienced anything like it. |
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Edited by
SkyHook5652
on
Sun 01/24/10 12:09 PM
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hey! i don't claim expertness! nor do i believe that we know anything but the most infinitesimal amount of what there is to know - about anything. i am extremely open to new experiences and eschew dogma! i did not deny ESP - i stated that i think it provably exists but i don't think i am confused about intuition. i have a way of looking at it that does not confuse me at all. i'm not very knowledgeable about remote viewing - i've heard of it and i know that there is a lot of controversy about if it has been reliably demonstrated. (yet). PEAR: http://www.princeton.edu/~pear/remote_perception.html SRI: http://www.biomindsuperpowers.com/Pages/CIA-InitiatedRV.html Determination of reliability is up to you. |
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i am in a chaos, i call myself as a budding philosopher, my greatest hinderance at the moment is GOD?? Who is god?? My own personal opinion...
We are each and every one of us gods. There is no one entity that is more "godlike" than any other, so there really is no "One True God" in that sense. JMHO |
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Topic:
Building a belief system...
Edited by
SkyHook5652
on
Sun 01/24/10 11:53 AM
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Creative said
The fact that humans have behaviors on an unconscious level does not make humans not fully conscious.
What about "unconscious/subconscious agreement"? (Which I consider to be different from faith.)
The aspect regarding children possibly taking things upon faith and faith alone interests me greatly. I think that there is a difference between that and a conscious and deliberate agreement. Identifying that distinction would grow this conversation and increase understanding. I am less and less inclined to deny the proposition that children agree before realizing what that is Are belief systems necessarily composed strictly of conscious agreements? If so, then what of the unconscious/subconscious? Does it have any part in belief systems? (Basically I'm just saying that from a practical standpoint, subconscious agreements can have just as much effect on one as conscious agreements.) Fundamentally, a belief system (as you've defined it) contains simply an aggregate of ideas that are "true/false because _________." Now even if something is considered true/false because of an unconscious agreement, it still fits the definition of a component of a belief system. So it seems to me that unconscious mechanisms can affect one's belief system, which seems to be borne out by observation of such things as instinct and intuition. |
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Topic:
Building a belief system...
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So a child is necessarily a blind follower of that which is being taught by the early teachers, whomever they may be. As already shown a child also uses the innate sense of logical reasoning(associating cause and effect with the world around them and with themself) which we are all born with and continuously use in order to function.
If a belief system is to be considered as everything which one comes to accept as true, then logically speaking, the only way for one to change their belief system is for one to either accept something which contradicts that which they have come to believe or keep fortifying that which is already accepted through how it is being framed in one's perception. Is there anything inherently illogical in this? In order to utilize logic, there must be at least two data to compare, and a standard of some sort that can be used to measure them (which may be one of the perceptions/data). So at the point where the very first perception/datum is received, it is not possible to either reject it as false, or accept it as true, because there is no second datum to compare it with. It is only after a second perception/datum is received that any comparison can be made. So there can be no belief system until there have been at least two perceptions/data received. But even at this point, there can be no logical reason for assigning truth or falsehood to either perception/datum. There must (eventually) be some completely arbitrary decision made. However, the way you defined "innate sense of logical reasoning" makes it dependent upon time. That is, there is a cause, and following that, there is an effect. But then how are the cause and the effect asssociated with each other? The simply observation of two events happening at different times does not necessarily indicate any inherent connection between them. So there must still be an arbitrary decision made (association of cause and effect if you will) in order for there to be any belief system at all. The bottom line here is that one must make a decision of some sort, (and that decision cannot be anything but arbitrary) before there can be a belief system. Thus, there is nothing in a belief system that is not ultimately based (either directly or indirectly) on an arbitrary decision. And since the belief system is created by a decision, it seems reasonable to assume that it can be changed (or even "uncreated") by a decision. |
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Topic:
Determinism or free will?
Edited by
SkyHook5652
on
Sun 01/10/10 12:01 AM
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Creative said:
… Let's say that I have a personality feature which I would like to change about myself. What is absolutely necessary in order to do such a thing? 1.) I must first admit that it(the feature) exists - which requires the recognition of it. If this is not the case, then I cannot intentionally change it. The change must be intentional in order for it to be self-direction. 2.) I must then identify the specific circumstances in which that particular personality feature plays a role. For if I cannot do such a thing, then I will not be able prevent it from proceeding the next time it happens. Preventing it is necessarily required in order to change it. 3.) I must then be able to recognize the circumstances as they unravel or prior to unraveling in order to hold the potential for change in my conscious mind. 4.) At the time where the feature would normally play a role, I must approach or react in a different way. I must do this enough times that I can break the old habit and employ anew. 5. All of the above necessarily demands the prior acknowledgment of the specific determining factors along with the conscious and deliberate implementation of new reactions to those particular circumstances. Successful self-direction contradicts 'free' will. It necessarily employs determinism. Sky replied: From a free will perspective, I would say that one must first decide that (the feature) exists. And from there, it continues to exist until one decides that it does not exist, for “deciding that it no longer exists” marks the point where the entire cycle of “changing the feature” ends. So really, one’s own decisions are what drives the whole process. It starts with a decision and ends with a decision. That is obviously false. One does not just 'decide' a personality feature into or out of existence. It takes much more than that. So as I see it, the complexity of that whole 5 step process is unnecessary. All that is really required is
Yet you offer no logical reasoning which refutes any of it? Refute what? Your “five-step program for changing a personal preference”? There is no need to refute it. You can get peanut butter from a jar by smashing the jar. That cannot be refuted either. But there are better, more efficient ways to do it.
1) Decide that (the feature) exists 2) Decide that (the feature) doesn’t exist. The simple fact is that the process starts with the decision that the feature exists. (Or maybe more accurately with the decision to rid oneself of the feature. But one had to have decided that one has the feature before on could contemplate ridding oneself of it.) And it ends with the decision that the feature does not exist – which decision is what marks the end of the process. You can put anything you want in between. But without those two delimiting decisions, the process never occurs, and it occurs whether or not anything happens in between. Or put it this way: If one did not decide that one had the feature, then there would be no reason to attempt to rid oneself of it. And once one decides that one no longer has the feature, the attempt to rid oneself of it ceases. You really think that a decision alone has so much power and influence over reality/actuality that one can just 'decide' things into and out of existence?
Since we do not agree on what “decision” is, it’s obvious that we cannot agree on this point. But simply put, it is my opinion that decision is what creates reality/actuality. So yes – “poof”.
Poof? Those are the two decisions that define the process. And they are the only two factors that are absolutely required. What are those decisions being based upon? Now of course, the nature of free will dictates that one can make any other decisions as to prerequisites and dependencies and intermediate steps and by-products and results and whatever. But all of those contain their own two step, start/end sub-processes, which are delimited by the “decide/decide not” steps. Different people may do different things in between. Or one may just go directly from 1) to 2) without doing anything in between. (And interestingly enough, the directness of the route from 1) to 2) could be considered a good measure of one’s own personal power and/or ability – in the human sense. But that’s getting off the subject.) Is that supposed to mean something? One of the problems I see here is that there doesn’t seem to be much recognition of the flip side of the free will coin – that free will includes the capability of deciding that something is “not”. This needs some kind of direction/further explanation. If a thing exists, one cannot just 'decide' that it does not. I mean, they could but that decision alone has no effect upon reality. Just like one cannot just 'decide' Mt. Everest into or out of existence, one also cannot just 'decide' that they like brussel sprouts (assuming they do not) or just 'decide' that they are no longer caucasion, or just 'decide' that they are intelligent, or just 'decide' etc...
I could walk around 'deciding' that things are not what they are, and continue to believe and act as though my thoughts alone had that kind of power. I would call that being self-deluded. In short, the first decision is being maintained and the second one is being recanted. So it most definitely was not “decided out of existence” because there was no decision that it doesn’t exist. This is the self-contradiction trap that most everyone sets for themselves and then steps into – saying that they decided something and immediately following (or preceding) that with a statement that denies the decision. Sort of like the conundrum “Can God make a rock so heavy he himself can’t lift it?” The key is not in God’s lifting ability, the key is in God’s ability to decide not to be able to lift the rock. So the size of the rock is just a red herring. God could decide not to be able to lift a grain of sand. Red herring is right on. This adds nothing to what is being discussed.In other words, if we’re going to talk about free will, it must to be treated as an absolute – and likewise for deteminism. Otherwise we’re simply arguing about where to draw a line and say “This is where the miracle occurs”.
You're contradicting yourself here. It is either absolute or not. One cannot decide an absolute into a subjective existence.Now if we treat free will as an absolute, then we must conclude that, as with the God/rock conundrum, free will allows for the decision that one does not have free will – and poof, just like that, no free will. Or one could decide that one’s freedom of will is limited to specific factors, and poof, just like that, “limited freedom of will”. The basic argument for determinism seems to be: Everything that we do understand is deterministic, therefore everything that we don’t understand must be deterministic as well.” (Which, in itself, seems to indicate that determinism is a requirement for understanding. But that’s another tangent.) Not a tangent! Cause and effect are absolutely necessary for any form of understanding. Humans would not be able to confidently function if the universe were not consistently predictable. The examples are endless, in fact every piece of knowledge is covered by this. Every opinion has it's grounding as well, some are based upon other opinion, and others are based upon known fact.Ok, if this discussion is confined to “human beings” only, then I will concede that your logic is quite sound. Just don’t forget that, by definition, it precludes any understanding of anything non-deterministic. So the whole thread is a moot point. You’ve postulated a starting point (human beings) from which you can never arrive at a conclusion of free will because the fundamental postulate excludes that possibility at the outset. In other words, “you can’t get there from here.” Not because there are no roads, but because all the roads between here and there are purposefully and intentionally blocked before you even start out. But it doesn’t stop there. We go on and build this hugely complex set of rules (e.g. logic, science) for evaluating deterministic factors. But those rules are designed to deal only with deterministic factors. They cannot be applied to non-deterministic factors because the very foundation of the rule set is the postulate that all things examined must be deterministic. So in truth, attempting to apply those rules of evaluation to something non-deterministic is an error in category. Quite simply, it’s attempting to evaluate apples using methodology/criteria designed for evaluating oranges. The only thing it can result in is factors relating to oranges. And the results are obvious – e.g. “it is not ripe because the skin is green” and we miss out on enjoying all those delicious Granny Smith apples because they’re green. The fact that you cannot give an example of something that lies outside of cause and effect is not a result of those rules and that knowledge being in place. It is because nothing in this universe exists outside of those universal laws, including your own thoughts on this matter. Well I prefer to believe my own observation and experience, which indicates otherwise. I’m sorry to end up with a subjective argument, but as far as I’m concerned, personal observation trumps logic every time. The only alternative is to accept someone else’s opinion over my own observations, which is not a healthy way to live life, in my opinion.
Your denying how the universe actually works, and that is not a matter of opinion, my friend. Well I won’t lower myself to accusing you of the very same thing. Rather than assuming you are in denial, I prefer to assume that you’re just missing some information, that’s all.
But the simple fact of the matter is that I do have a choice in what foods I find tasty, and I have decided that I like the taste of apple pie – regardless of whether that makes sense to you or not. Simple saying that I do not or cannot, does not make it so, paticularly in the face of direct evidence that I do and have.
Just because you think that your decision is the cause of your liking the taste of apple pie does not prove that that is the case.Well I never said it did. But just because you think that my decision is not the cause of my liking the taste of apple pie does not prove that that is the case either. So we’re even.
Bottom line, you say I didn’t decide (or can’t have decided) that I like the taste of apple pie, and I say that I did decide that I like the taste of apple pie. So where does that leave us? Earlier you mentioned something about your argument here being grounded upon things that constitute going back further than conception. Those types of argument have no value with me, because there is no evidence to support them. That is completely subjective to your own personal belief system, one of which has been given here without logical grounding to support it. And I understand and accept that that particular argument (pre-conception existence) has no value to you because you have never seen any (or enough) evidence to convince you that it is true. And since, as you say, it is necessarily subjective, it is impossible for anyone to present any “logical grounding” to support it. The very most I can do is inform you that I have seen enough evidence to convince me that it is true.
What evidence do you have - can you give - which would necessarily lead to the conclusion that one 'decides' to exist? What would you be willing to accept as “evidence that would necessarily lead to that conclusion”? You tell me, and then I’ll decide if I want to try to give it to you.
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Edited by
SkyHook5652
on
Sat 01/09/10 05:56 PM
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From the patent document...
(http://v3.espacenet.com/publicationDetails/description;jsessionid=185176A86FCAC80AEC5858A7F593CA3B.espacenet_levelx_prod_2?CC=US&NR=2004071944A1&KC=A1&FT=D&date=20040415&DB=&locale=) [0109] The total weight of the EESU (est.)=336 pounds
[0110] The total volume of the EESU (est.)=13.5 inches*13.5 inches*11 inches=2005 inches<3 >. . . Includes the weight of the container and connecting material. Thats 336 pounds in about one cubic foot - a little less than half the density of lead. And also about half the weight of a 20 gallon tank of gasoline. Just a bit if trivia that I found interesting. What I think is cool is the possibility for truly independent, all-wheel drive, like diesel-electric train engines. We just have to get the electric motors scaled down to fit within the parameters of a personal vehicle while keeping the horsepower-to-the-wheels factor high enough. (And of course the suspension problems that go along with that approach.) Fascinating prospects though. |
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Topic:
Determinism or free will?
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Thanks, Massagetrade and Creative Soul, for voicing your opinion on my line of thinking.
It seems possible to me for a universe to exist which has both deterministic and non-deterministic mechanisms at play. Some of those deterministic mechanism might be absolute, universal, permanent, immutable. Thus the cause-and-effect chains that residents of that universe actually observe might never break; those chains are simply unrelated to the non-deterministic aspects of that hypothetical universe.There is another line of argument against free will and haphazard (non-deterministic) physical happenings in the material world. In a strictly cause-and-effect type of world, such as ours seems to be, everything seems to have a cause for being or happening, and everything that is or happens causes something else in a way to be or happen, such as a change in them. Or even no change in them. If I hit a nail with a hammer, the nail will go into the wood. The cause-and-effect chain is obvious for us all. If the world was NOT deterministic, then we ought to see some instances in which the cause-and-effect chain would misbehave. Such as if we hit a nail with a hammer, then a new twenty-year-old virgin would be borne ont he spot, anatomically correct and complete with a flame thrower and a life insurance policy. This sort of thing just does not happen. Never has, we have no reliable evidence that it has. Therefore the cause-and-effect chain never breaks. Which means that the world is deterministic. But if we’re talking “might bes”, then we cannot exclude the possibility that the deterministic factors could be a product of the non-deterministic factors. (Like a determinisitic machine that was built by a non-deterministic individual.) Which would make the non-deterministic factors the “absolute, universal, permanent, immutable” ones. Such a system would look exactly like a wholly deterministic system as long as the non-deterministic factor did not alter it’s operation. So if one did nothing to change the operation of the machine (e.g. exercise one’s free will), the system would be indistinguishable from a wholly deterministic one. |
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Topic:
Determinism or free will?
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creative wrote:
One's original belief system is not freely chosen. Sky: If there were a way to prove that, I’d be very interested. But as far as I can see, there isn’t, so I’ll hold to my existing opinion that original belief system is freely chosen. Who chooses their parents or their first teachings? Don't know who chooses their parents, but you said "belief system" not "teachings" - completely different. Show me how there is any difference at all. I can show it, but considering your identification of “choice” and “decision” I expect that same conflation to occur when the explanation is evaluated by you. Not saying there is anything wrong with that. Only that if one’s only criteria for determining whether a fruit is an apple or an orange is color, then the result of making such a determination will be different if one uses other criteria such as texture, taste, origin, etc. Likewise, without any differentiation between “choice” and “decision”, the is no way to understanding my world view.
So with that in mind… The main difference between “teachings” and “belief systems” is in point-of-origin. “Teachings” originate from “other”. Belief systems originate from “self”. Or one could put it in computer terms - Teachings are “input” and belief systems are “output”. Or one could put it in terms of foods – teachings are “unprocessed” and belief systems are “processed”. One's original belief system and all that it entails will color the world accordingly. It is the first means that one has by which to translate observation, to make sense of what is seen in the person's own mind. Which means that either 1) there was a belief system in place to start with, or 2) there was no belief system and the belief system just magically popped into existence at some point.
Seriously. If one starts out with no belief system to color one’s interpretation of one’s perception, then how did any belief system come into existence at all? Where is the line between “no belief system” and “belief system”? What exactly is it that changed? (“A miracle occurred”?) And yes there’s the tired old “emergent property” response. But as far as I’m concerned, saying “it’s a mystery” reminds me of the old George Carlin routine in the Catholic school where all the really hard questions were answered simply with “Well, it’s a mystery” and it ended there. Basically you’re saying that “in the beginning” there was no belief system to color perception. So when the very first perception occurred, was it colored by a belief system? According to what you’ve been saying, there could not have been any belief system in place, so that very first perception could not have been colored by a belief system. So then what? That very first, uncolored perception becomes the sum total of one’s “belief system” and every perception after that becomes, and is colored by, the existing belief system. In other words, one’s belief system is the sum total of all perceptions, colored by anything or not. Now interestingly enough, I think that’s not far off. The result is essentially that the aggregate of everything one perceives is what makes up the belief system. The single place where this does not align with my view is in scope. As far as I’m concerned, a decision came before the first perception – that first decision being “to perceive”, with all it’s attendant implications. But before that decision was made, the was no perception. |
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Topic:
Determinism or free will?
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The only way it can be free is if it independent of outside influences, Yes, that is true by definition.
But the act of deciding is the key point of free will. We are free to decide. What we decide may be dependent on other factors - or not. But the "decision to decide" (oh geez what a semantic mess) is totally free and unaffected by anything other than self. In fact, it must be so otherwise it cannot even be called a decision - it must be the effect of a cause and thus not a decision at all but a reaction. (Although, even so there must have been a prior decision to react. So we're back at the chicken/egg issue. ...because that is what determines what one decides/chooses. If "that" refers to "outside influence", I can only say that that is simply a statement synonymous with "everything is deterministic" (i.e. every apparent choice is not really a choice at all but the direct and invariant effect of a cause.) In other words, everything is deterministic because everything is deterministic.
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Topic:
Determinism or free will?
Edited by
SkyHook5652
on
Sat 01/09/10 03:02 PM
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I feel like dissecting... sorry Sky,
No problem. That often helps clarify things.
Personally, I don’t equate will with what a person wants. Although they may be closely related in the sense that one applies one’s will to obtain what one wants. But to me, will is not dependent on wants, just as electricity is not dependent on light bulbs, nor are light bulbs dependent on electricity. Per the definition of “will” from dictionary.com (“the faculty of conscious and especially of deliberate action; the power of control the mind has over its own actions”) will is more of a potential (a “faculty” or “power”) than a product of something. It exists independently regardless of whether it is being “applied”. In other words, the potential/faculty/power exists, regardless whether anything is wanted or not. "The faculty of conscious and especially of deliberate action."
If the above is to be considered as the will, then it is innate, and therefore it's existence is necessarily beyond our control. It is already there when we are born. I do not disagree. How is it possibly used if not for wants/preferences? How can one deliberately act if not in accordance to wants? Now I would have to agree with “… no choice is or can be made without some form of influence from the will ” because choice is necessarily the product of will.
Choice is necessarily a product of the will? Don't you mean that choosing is necessarily a product of the will? But everything following that I completely disagree with. Particularly “…one cannot voluntarily decide to change their favorite foods or colors or sexual preferences, etc.” As far as I’m concerned, that sentence is completely false, despite the weight of authority and majority agreement that it seems to have behind it. Think of your least favorite thing. Are you telling me that you believe that you can willfully change it so that it becomes your favorite thing? Hmmmmm... Moreover, there had to be some decision as to favorite food/whatever in the first place. So if one decides what one’s favorite food is (i.e. decides what one wants) then one has in fact voluntarily (i.e. willfully) changed their favorite food (from nothing to something).
This makes no sense Sky. One does not "decide" that they like the taste of apple pie. They either do or they don't and that depends completely upon one's innate sense of taste. You have no choice in what foods you find tasty. You may however have a choice in whether or not eat them again, according to that. Bottom line, you say I didn’t decide (or can’t have decided) that I like the taste of apple pie, and I say that I did decide that I like the taste of apple pie. So where does that leave us? Personally, I would choose my own observation of my own mind over someone else’s professions that they know how my mind works better than I do. If what you claim is true, then there would be no such a thing as suffering in any form, because one would be able to 'decide' that whatever is going on is their favorite thing, and they would be able to willfully enjoy it. Well, there’s a piece missing there – one can decide to suffer (e.g. ascetics). So what you’ve just said “would be”, is simply an opinion that is contradicted by observation.
In short, it is my view that one does “freely choose personal preferences”. The very fact that they are personal preferences requires that they be chosen freely – otherwise they would not be one’s own preferences, they would be someone (or something) else’s preferences. Your severely conflating things here. There are many kinds of personal preferences, all of which are not determined on equal grounds, and none of which are 'freely' chosen. All of which first require knowing about them and comparing to others, which demands the idea of that being determined by exposure. One cannot willfully choose that which is not known to be a choice. Personal preference of foods does not require nor is it determined by being decided upon by a conscious individual. It only requires the innate ability for one to recognize that they either do or do not like a particular thing after having tasted it. That is facilitated by something entirely beyond our control. You have no choice in the physiological nervous system that you are born with. That includes the sense of taste. You do not determine it, it determines what you like the taste of, or not. The bottom line here seems to be that our concepts of “scope” are different. As far as I understand it, in your world view, everything having to do with human behavior starts sometime around conception, give-or-take a few weeks or months. But in my view, the events that contribute to shaping an individual’s “human behavior patterns” go back several dozen orders of magnitude farther than that – past even the beginning of this physical universe to the point where the original decision was made to “join in the game”. Consider the game of basketball as an analogy. Suppose you decided to hypnotize yourself into believing that nothing existed before the game started and that everything would cease to exist after the game ended. As far as you’re concerned, you cannot quit the game, you cannot change the rules, you cannot break the rules without being punished, and you cannot do anything but play the game. (The three laws of thermodynamics: you can’t win, you can’t break even, and you can’t get out of the game. :laugh) All the people in the stands are not people you could ever meet. They are simply part of the environment that you have no control over, as are the referees, the boundaries of the court, the baskets, the key, the freethrow line, the three point line, etc., etc. Now in that analogy, you are talking about just the one game that you are playing, whereas I am talking about all the “before and after the game”, particularly including the decision to limit one’s awareness to only those factors that are present in that one game being played – which is the original (free will) choice to not have complete free will during the course of the game. (e.g. to be unable to quit playing.) But remember that the whole thing started with the original decision to play the game without any knowledge of anything outside the game. Now don’t get me wrong. I completely understand how postulates of 1) a time limit measured in decades, and 2) a dependency on the physical, would logically result in the conclusions regarding human behavior that contribute to your world view. I really do understand that. I just don’t happen to base my world view on those same postulates is all. |
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Topic:
Determinism or free will?
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Creative said:
… Let's say that I have a personality feature which I would like to change about myself. What is absolutely necessary in order to do such a thing?
From a free will perspective, I would say that one must first decide that (the feature) exists. And from there, it continues to exist until one decides that it does not exist, for “deciding that it no longer exists” marks the point where the entire cycle of “changing the feature” ends. So really, one’s own decisions are what drives the whole process. It starts with a decision and ends with a decision.
1.) I must first admit that it(the feature) exists - which requires the recognition of it. If this is not the case, then I cannot intentionally change it. The change must be intentional in order for it to be self-direction. 2.) I must then identify the specific circumstances in which that particular personality feature plays a role. For if I cannot do such a thing, then I will not be able prevent it from proceeding the next time it happens. Preventing it is necessarily required in order to change it. 3.) I must then be able to recognize the circumstances as they unravel or prior to unraveling in order to hold the potential for change in my conscious mind. 4.) At the time where the feature would normally play a role, I must approach or react in a different way. I must do this enough times that I can break the old habit and employ anew. 5. All of the above necessarily demands the prior acknowledgment of the specific determining factors along with the conscious and deliberate implementation of new reactions to those particular circumstances. Successful self-direction contradicts 'free' will. It necessarily employs determinism. So as I see it, the complexity of that whole 5 step process is unnecessary. All that is really required is 1) Decide that (the feature) exists 2) Decide that (the feature) doesn’t exist. Those are the two decisions that define the process. And they are the only two factors that are absolutely required. Now of course, the nature of free will dictates that one can make any other decisions as to prerequisites and dependencies and intermediate steps and by-products and results and whatever. But all of those contain their own two step, start/end sub-processes, which are delimited by the “decide/decide not” steps. Different people may do different things in between. Or one may just go directly from 1) to 2) without doing anything in between. (And interestingly enough, the directness of the route from 1) to 2) could be considered a good measure of one’s own personal power and/or ability – in the human sense. But that’s getting off the subject.) One of the problems I see here is that there doesn’t seem to be much recognition of the flip side of the free will coin – that free will includes the capability of deciding that something is “not”. Sort of like the conundrum “Can God make a rock so heavy he himself can’t lift it?” The key is not in God’s lifting ability, the key is in God’s ability to decide not to be able to lift the rock. So the size of the rock is just a red herring. God could decide not to be able to lift a grain of sand. In other words, if we’re going to talk about free will, it must to be treated as an absolute – and likewise for deteminism. Otherwise we’re simply arguing about where to draw a line and say “This is where the miracle occurs”. Now if we treat free will as an absolute, then we must conclude that, as with the God/rock conundrum, free will allows for the decision that one does not have free will – and poof, just like that, no free will. Or one could decide that one’s freedom of will is limited to specific factors, and poof, just like that, “limited freedom of will”. ------------------------------ The basic argument for determinism seems to be: Everything that we do understand is deterministic, therefore everything that we don’t understand must be deterministic as well.” (Which, in itself, seems to indicate that determinism is a requirement for understanding. But that’s another tangent.) But it doesn’t stop there. We go on and build this hugely complex set of rules (e.g. logic, science) for evaluating deterministic factors. But those rules are designed to deal only with deterministic factors. They cannot be applied to non-deterministic factors because the very foundation of the rule set is the postulate that all things examined must be deterministic. So in truth, attempting to apply those rules of evaluation to something non-deterministic is an error in category. Quite simply, it’s attempting to evaluate apples using methodology/criteria designed for evaluating oranges. The only thing it can result in is factors relating to oranges. And the results are obvious – e.g. “it is not ripe because the skin is green” and we miss out on enjoying all those delicious Granny Smith apples because they’re green. |
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Topic:
Determinism or free will?
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creative wrote:
One's original belief system is not freely chosen. If there were a way to prove that, I’d be very interested. But as far as I can see, there isn’t, so I’ll hold to my existing opinion that original belief system is freely chosen. Who chooses their parents or their first teachings? |
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Topic:
Determinism or free will?
Edited by
SkyHook5652
on
Fri 01/08/10 06:07 PM
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Thanks, Massagetrade and Creative Soul, for voicing your opinion on my line of thinking.
One other thing regarding "...we have no reliable evidence that it has."
There is another line of argument against free will and haphazard (non-deterministic) physical happenings in the material world. In a strictly cause-and-effect type of world, such as ours seems to be, everything seems to have a cause for being or happening, and everything that is or happens causes something else in a way to be or happen, such as a change in them. Or even no change in them. If I hit a nail with a hammer, the nail will go into the wood. The cause-and-effect chain is obvious for us all. If the world was NOT deterministic, then we ought to see some instances in which the cause-and-effect chain would misbehave. Such as if we hit a nail with a hammer, then a new twenty-year-old virgin would be borne ont he spot, anatomically correct and complete with a flame thrower and a life insurance policy. This sort of thing just does not happen. Never has, we have no reliable evidence that it has. Therefore the cause-and-effect chain never breaks. Which means that the world is deterministic. Evidence itself requires a cause-and-effect chain, so how could there be evidence of something that "breaks the chain"? If it breaks the chain, then it is external to the chain and thus the chain itself cannot be used as evidence because it is no longer a chain - it is broken by the non-deterministic factor. In other words, asking for evidence of a non-deterministic factor is nonsensical. If it is non-deterministic, there can be no evidence of it, by definition. You say that evidence relies on determistically based measurements and therefore it can only detect deterministically caused effects. I don't think so. One example would be (which I gave already) a nail hitting a board and a virgin forming there as an effect. There the cause-effect chain would be definitely broken by a non-deterministic factor. Yet the event is fully measurable by a deterministic chain of cause-effect, and therefore there CAN be evidence, even by observing the definition. That is completely detectable by deterministic ways, and it is completely outside the determinstic world if it happens. But it never happens. So your statement that determinstic measurements cannot measure outcomes of factors that are not in the realm of the deterministic world is false. On the other hand, if you are simply arguing that non-determinism is equivalent to “unexpected”, then I can go along with that – as a starting point. But for that to be realistically applied in the determination of non-deterministic events, one would have to know any and every possible deterministic factor. Not very practical. Please try to read my posts accurately. If you are very furiously and emotionally attached to a world view, please understand that that world view has a capacity to be wrong and you can only understand that if you have an open mind to reason and logic, not only to intelligence. Excellent advice that I would urge you to follow in the same spirit as you have urged me to.
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Topic:
Determinism or free will?
Edited by
SkyHook5652
on
Fri 01/08/10 05:37 PM
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Thanks, Massagetrade and Creative Soul, for voicing your opinion on my line of thinking.
I think you’re missing an option – the possibility that there are both deterministic and non-deterministic factors at work in the world.There is another line of argument against free will and haphazard (non-deterministic) physical happenings in the material world. In a strictly cause-and-effect type of world, such as ours seems to be, everything seems to have a cause for being or happening, and everything that is or happens causes something else in a way to be or happen, such as a change in them. Or even no change in them. If I hit a nail with a hammer, the nail will go into the wood. The cause-and-effect chain is obvious for us all. If the world was NOT deterministic, then we ought to see some instances in which the cause-and-effect chain would misbehave. Such as if we hit a nail with a hammer, then a new twenty-year-old virgin would be borne ont he spot, anatomically correct and complete with a flame thrower and a life insurance policy. This sort of thing just does not happen. Never has, we have no reliable evidence that it has. Therefore the cause-and-effect chain never breaks. Which means that the world is deterministic. Again, you are exercising the old tactics of making me repeat myself, of pretending to not understand what I said, of coming back to a point that has been closed, and you wear me down this way. I swore off of debating with you for this very reason in the past, and now you are doing the EXACT SAME THING. I wouldn't have responded to this if Jennybean did not so enthusiastically agree with you here. No more of this, please, and if yes, I won't respond. I'm not making you do anything. (But that's just my opinion. I can understand that for one who believes all is deterministic, that one could be "made" to post in a forum, without making a decision to do so.)
And I might add that YOU are "doing the EXACT SAME THING" in assuming that a point is closed just because YOU say it's closed. Well, I don't happen to agree that it is closed, so I feel perfectly free to comment on it in any way I see fit (in accordance with the forum rules. But if you feel it's closed, then by all means don't reply to any comments about it. |
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Topic:
Determinism or free will?
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Thanks, Massagetrade and Creative Soul, for voicing your opinion on my line of thinking.
One other thing regarding "...we have no reliable evidence that it has."
There is another line of argument against free will and haphazard (non-deterministic) physical happenings in the material world. In a strictly cause-and-effect type of world, such as ours seems to be, everything seems to have a cause for being or happening, and everything that is or happens causes something else in a way to be or happen, such as a change in them. Or even no change in them. If I hit a nail with a hammer, the nail will go into the wood. The cause-and-effect chain is obvious for us all. If the world was NOT deterministic, then we ought to see some instances in which the cause-and-effect chain would misbehave. Such as if we hit a nail with a hammer, then a new twenty-year-old virgin would be borne ont he spot, anatomically correct and complete with a flame thrower and a life insurance policy. This sort of thing just does not happen. Never has, we have no reliable evidence that it has. Therefore the cause-and-effect chain never breaks. Which means that the world is deterministic. Evidence itself requires a cause-and-effect chain, so how could there be evidence of something that "breaks the chain"? If it breaks the chain, then it is external to the chain and thus the chain itself cannot be used as evidence because it is no longer a chain - it is broken by the non-deterministic factor. In other words, asking for evidence of a non-deterministic factor is nonsensical. If it is non-deterministic, there can be no evidence of it, by definition. |
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Topic:
Determinism or free will?
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Thanks, Massagetrade and Creative Soul, for voicing your opinion on my line of thinking.
I think you’re missing an option – the possibility that there are both deterministic and non-deterministic factors at work in the world.
There is another line of argument against free will and haphazard (non-deterministic) physical happenings in the material world. In a strictly cause-and-effect type of world, such as ours seems to be, everything seems to have a cause for being or happening, and everything that is or happens causes something else in a way to be or happen, such as a change in them. Or even no change in them. If I hit a nail with a hammer, the nail will go into the wood. The cause-and-effect chain is obvious for us all. If the world was NOT deterministic, then we ought to see some instances in which the cause-and-effect chain would misbehave. Such as if we hit a nail with a hammer, then a new twenty-year-old virgin would be borne ont he spot, anatomically correct and complete with a flame thrower and a life insurance policy. This sort of thing just does not happen. Never has, we have no reliable evidence that it has. Therefore the cause-and-effect chain never breaks. Which means that the world is deterministic. |
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Topic:
On Knowing...
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creative wrote:
Instinct is innate, no matter what the source is believed to be from, one is born with it already intact. Is there a clear line which can be drawn between instinctual behaviors and learned ones? Wouldn't that mean that learned behavior is behavior with knowledge and instinctual behavior is behavior without knowledge? That could go an interesting direction. If you equate life experience to knowledge. Knowledge, to me, is justified true belief. Therefore, all behavior with knowledge is not necessarily learned behavior. Learned behavior typically indicates one's adoption of another's behavioral patterns through being repeatedly exposed to them. Learned behavior does not necessarily require knowledge. |
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Edited by
SkyHook5652
on
Fri 01/08/10 04:16 PM
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the end in 2012 -- happening or not? not
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