Well enlighten us Miles, you mentioned it. I'm curious, so please do explain how this could be.

Just study Malachi ask your pastor if this has come to pass

lol you say that like I go to church Miles. I would possibly go if I had a car lol >.<. But just for the sake of a "discussion" that's not how it works. You don't just claim something shows something but doesn't explain what it's suppose to be showing. If you're going to post something, I ask that you explain the relation please.

That's because I can show more proof than you would want. years ago I flooded things with proof then was asked not to , to just explain it. so I changed and that's what I did. But from our experience Cowboy it does not matter what proof I show u.. U r stuck on Tradition. In a day and age where the bible references where no bias is concerned just what the Hebrew and greek says anyone can find out what the bible says and come to their own conclusions.

I do not want or wish anyone to believe what I say. I hope people will start to look at what the languages of the day really said before the KJV that is so Holy. it is so messed up. but today as Daniel said we would have a Knowledge explosion . a time where only now almost anyone can search the Hebrew and the greek and make up their own minds. Study to shew yourself approves we r told.

I waist my time when no matter what u will keep to Christmas, easter jc, j-hovah. now their is a name u should really study and u will fall over backwards when u see who is being called upon. But no one cares. its a Free for All. Believe whatever you want to. yet still call upon jc all the time. u will find out when you throw out those names the Spirit will open to you. you can not be partakers of evil and whats Holy.

Study. the bible tells me to stop telling you things when u reject it. so I am not going to do the work for you then you just say. that was all done away. you say you r a Christian. what does that mean? to be Christ Like right? But what do you do that is Christ Like?

Did Christ keep the Law? so wouldn't being Christ Like would be to keep the same Law also? He was our example. but we throw it away with one word. Fulfilled. read the rest of the story.

Did Yahshua ever Sacrafice? no he did not. nowhere is it recorded he did a sacrafise other than his lips and himself as we are told to do. By the way it says that same thing in the Psalms . That Yahweh never desired the fat and the blood of heifers and goats. Study to shew yourself approved. You have to answer for yourself not me.

Think you may have taken this "discussion" way to far Miles. lol

You ask I'm assuming a hypothetical question "Did Yahshua ever sacrifice?" Lol who would he be sacrificing to and for what reason? lol. When people in the days when they made sacrifices, were making the sacrifices to HIM lol. So who would he necessarily make the sacrifice to? The sacrifices were not pleasing to him for he wanted us to do right in the first place and not have to sacrifice something. That's why he didn't necessarily "approve" of the sacrifices.

Also you asked



He kept every bit of it, he never had one fault, not one sin. It was your sins, his sins, her sins, and of course my sins Jesus took the punishment for. Nothing he did, for he was pure.

Sacraficing he did not do is an example. He did not pray to himself. He is Not Yahweh. It is written every temptation known to man he went through and did not sin. He was not Elohim on earth. He was a man or what did he really do since the pain and suffering he could endure as Elohim with no problem. He said he was not good only his father in Heaven was good. this is a problem thinking he is Yahweh. He is not

I think you guys missed the point of the OP; which in a way illustrates the OP. Believing in a g-d or a message without believing in a book about g-d. The study of the Bible has resulted in the Modernist era- lack of faith in g-d, due to the bible's historical, scientific and even internal inaccuracies, regardless of any praeterit eschatology. Can you believe in a message of love in a way that it helps you in your everyday life? It is easy to send your $20 to Greenpeace, more difficult to care for the person standing next to you

Jesus recognized a bleeding woman touching him as a sign of her faith. By complimenting rather than rebuking her, Jesus ignored another of his scripture’s rules: “If a woman has a discharge of blood for many days, not at the time her [period], or if she has a discharge beyond the time, all the days of her discharge she shall continue in uncleanness... Every bed on which she lies during all the days of her discharge shall be treated as [unclean]… Everything on which she sits shall be unclean … Whoever touches these things shall be unclean” (Leviticus 15:25).


Ok.

How about this he says Yahshua broke the law by her touching him. Where does it say that?

How is not sacrificing an example? Of course he did not pray to himself, what would be the point in that? How would that even be possible? No he's not Yahweh, he's Yahshua.

Yahshua is Hebrew for what we term "Joshua" which means Jehovah is Salvation.

Yahweh . The closest we have is the consonants YHWH, or YaHWeH. They did not use vowels in that language, so the closest translation of the "letters" is YHWH.

El is the word for God

Elohim is the plural--not "gods" but God in the mystic threefold unity.

Source of the name meanings- https://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=A0SO81CViIZT.EsAvj1XNyoA;_ylu=X3oDMTEzc2o1YTgyBHNlYwNzcgRwb3MDNwRjb2xvA2dxMQR2dGlkA1ZJUDEzMV8x?qid=1005122602291

How do you know the bible is inaccurate though? How do you not know the testings, our history, and so forth isn't the inaccurate one? And thus the difference in faiths, in the world, or in God.

Leviticus is old testament/covenant laws. Jesus was here to fulfill those laws with it's last prophecy. He did not follow teach or necessarily obey the old covenant laws for again they were being fulfilled he was here to teach the new covenant.

Yes isn't it funny how Joshua the son of Nun and Yahshua had the same name yet Joshua they made it sound close as in Heb 4 8 you can see between the KJV and the NKJV one says JC the other Joshua. Joshua is correct. yet thoughout the NT they use JC. Why would they do that?

Elohim is plural it is many things. It can be a judge , it is the spirit world as in Angels when Used as Yahweh Elohim it is then Refering to the creator as Yahshua did all things as he was told by his father. Keep searching u will find many things about the languages that does not mean what we see it as meaning. Blessings Cowboy

Ps. what I mean by not sacrafising an example because Yahshua was our example as their was no reason for him to be baptized yet he did as an example. so he was showing Yahweh never desired sacrifice.

Ps 51:17
17 The sacrifices of God are a broken spirit,
A broken and a contrite heart —
These, O God, You will not despise.
NKJV

Is this not what Yahweh desires today? to humble yourself and become a new person?

In Hebrew and in several other languages where one might find such names, there are no vowels written. Sometimes they put little "points" on or near a letter to indicate a vowel so as to clear up any ambiguities. So Jesus and Joshua would look nearly identical. The name is Jesus in English because of transliterations into Greek and into Latin. And anyway, so he had a similar name as another, who doesn't? Probably others in the area and at those times had the same name.

And yes Elohim is plural. But it's plural in the same sense "jury" would be plural.

Yahshua was born of Hebrew parents given a Hebrew name just as Joshua/Yahshua son of Nun was. The Hebrew I was referring to was the Book of Hebrews verse 4 8 kjv and nkjv say different names. one reason we know is Yahshua did give them rest Joshua did not.

jc is a greek, latin mixure,. Transliteration is done on all names. the sound never changes. if u r cowboy in America u would here the same sound in the Russian or any language. the sound of the name never changes. the difference between translating a language and transliteration

lol the sounds never changes? You are incorrect lol. My name is Gregory and in Spanish it is Gregorio. Yes Jesus Christ is not Hebrew, done discussed that.

And Joshua literally means "Yah is salvation"

Yehoshua is hebrew
Yeshua is Aramaic

So you're saying Yehoshua and Yeshua is pronounced the same in their translations? And or Gregory and Gregorio sounds the same?

But I asked you. I'm here to have a discussion which includes two or more parties, not here to "study" per-say lol. You made the statement, so I asked you to explain it for clearer understanding.

And in English it is spelt/pronounced Jesus. Names don't change between languages, only the spelling/pronunciation does. But at the end of the day, it is the same name. And you say the name is different between KJV and NKJV, yes because again spelling/pronunciation changes between languages/translations.

Niddah: A woman in the period of her menstruation.
— Soncino Talmud Glossary for the Babylonian Talmud

[The Niddah ordinances] concern the very being of the soul of the Jew. They safeguard the purity of the Jewish soul, without which no true religious moral and spiritual life — individual or corporate — as Judaism conceives it, is attainable.
— Rabbi Epstein, Introduction to Seder Tohoroth (2)

Non-Jewish Americans may find it difficult to comprehend the importance of menstruation in the Jewish religion and culture. One indication of its importance is that an entire tractate of the Babylonian Talmud, the Tractate Niddah, is devoted to menstruation laws. (17)
We do not wish to subject the Talmud Sages to undue scrutiny. Many peoples, from the Australian Aborigines to the South African Bushmen, have put restrictions on menstruating women. (14) However, we in America are not being asked to move closer to the ways of the Australian Aborigines or South African Bushmen, but closer to the ways of the Talmud. Thus, it behooves us to look closely.
Niddah in a Nutshell
The Old Testament stipulates a woman is unclean during menstruation, but the Talmud stipulates her period of uncleanness lasts for an additional week after menstruation has ended. Niddah is the word used to denote the menstruating woman and her period of uncleanness. The niddah defiles everyone and everything she touches. She may not have sexual intercourse with her husband. If she does, he is subject to arrest and perhaps the death penalty. Some niddah laws apply to Gentile women, too. In his Introduction to Tractate Niddah, Rev. Dr. Israel W. Slotki states:
Chapter IV is concerned with the condition of uncleanness of non-Jewish women, such as Samaritans, Sadduceans and idolaters …
— Rev. Dr. Slotki (4)

Thus it behooves all American men and women — Jew and Gentile alike — to come to grips with the laws of Niddah.
Meet Typhoid Mary
The Jewish Encyclopedia gives an overview of the law of Niddah. It states that those laws are based on Leviticus 15:19, et seq.
The Pentateuchal code (Lev. xv. 19 et seq.) ordains that a menstruous woman shall be unclean for seven days from the beginning of the period, whether it lasts only one day or all seven.
— Jewish Encyclopedia (5)

Let's look at the Bible verses cited by the Jewish Encyclopedia. Leviticus 15:19 reads:
And if a woman have an issue, and her issue in her flesh be blood, she shall be put apart seven days: and whosoever toucheth her shall be unclean until the even.
— Leviticus 15:19 (KJV)

So then, according to the Old Testament, a woman has to be isolated during her monthly period and she contaminates all who touch her. They also become "unclean."
And every thing that she lieth upon in her separation shall be unclean: every thing also that she sitteth upon shall be unclean.
And whosoever toucheth her bed shall wash his clothes, and bathe himself in water, and be unclean until the even.
And whosoever toucheth any thing that she sat upon shall wash his clothes, and bathe himself in water, and be unclean until the even.
— Leviticus 15:20-22 (KJV)

Now the objects she touches become sources of uncleanness, and the contagion spreads. What happens if an "unclean" man touches other people or objects? Do they also become unclean? Leviticus does not tell us. But let us continue to read:
And if it be on her bed, or on any thing whereon she sitteth, when he toucheth it, he shall be unclean until the even.
And if any man lie with her at all, and her flowers be upon him, he shall be unclean seven days; and all the bed whereon he lieth shall be unclean.
And if a woman have an issue of her blood many days out of the time of her separation, or if it run beyond the time of her separation; all the days of the issue of her uncleanness shall be as the days of her separation: she shall be unclean.
Every bed whereon she lieth all the days of her issue shall be unto her as the bed of her separation: and whatsoever she sitteth upon shall be unclean, as the uncleanness of her separation.
And whosoever toucheth those things shall be unclean, and shall wash his clothes, and bathe himself in water, and be unclean until the even.
But if she be cleansed of her issue, then she shall number to herself seven days, and after that she shall be clean.
— Leviticus 15:23-28 (KJV)

Of course she's going to be unclean, anything she sits on or touches would be unclean as well. You try having a menstrual period without any tampons or pads or anything. And she is to be by herself because a lot of diseases and other sorts are transferred through blood. So in again the absence of any pads or tampons, they were to remain by themselves for that period to keep their blood from running all over the place and or having contact of the blood all over the place.

You also have to keep in mind the time era we're discussing. Did they have running water? Indoor pluming? No lol they had to go to the river or other body of water to wash up. So again that's why they were to remain in solitude for the time being while their menstrual cycle went through and she had the chance to clean up the "mess".

I was answering Miles question, as he is obsessed with seeing "where is it written"