Yes but doesn't is say God WILL's for all to come to repentance?

I'm asking (not arguing just so you know...it's a real question not a debate)

I've actually never known how that scripture fit in with predestination though I've tried to find out.

The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.

boulomai
1) to will deliberately, have a purpose, be minded

2) of willing as an affection, to desire

2 Peter 3:9


willing


It is not God's [will/desire] that any should perish.

So that means if we use definition 1 (will), then God's will is twarted, because Revelations describes many perishing.

If we use the second definition (desire), then that verse makes perfect sense in the understanding that some will perish and others will not. God desires that we all come to repentance, but God does not impose his desire upon our actions (ie God does not will that we all come to repentance).

Okay...well said I better understand it now. Thanks.

What do you believe about the doctrines of grace? (aka 5 points of calvinism)